Pearson Chapter 19 Review Questions
What is the normal coagulation time for blood placed in a glass test tube?
8-18 minutes
What compound stimulates platelet aggregation?
ADP
What hormone is locally produced and causes smooth muscle contraction during the vascular phase?
ADP
Clot destruction involves a process that begins with _______________
Activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin
Lymphoid stem cells develop into _____________
B cells and T cells
What type of blood would cause a cross-reaction when given to a person with type A-positive blood?
B positive
Patients on "blood thinners" such as Coumadin, are cautioned to restrain from eating green leafy vegetables. What is the reason behind such prescription?
Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which is needed to synthesize some of the clotting factors.
Nonspecific defenses do not discriminate between one type of threat or another. The specific immune response will provide a counterattack against specific types of invading pathogens. What cell type is responsible for specific defense?
Lymphocytes
Platelets are formed from large cells called ______________
Megakaryocytes
Protein synthesis in a mature RBC occurs primarily in the ___________
Mitochondria
Which type of white blood cell circulates in the blood for about 24 hours before entering the tissues and differentiating into a macrophage?
Monocyte
Myeloid stem cells develop into ____________
Natural killer cells
Which blood cell is responsible for carrying out immune surveillance?
Natural killer cells
A runny nose is one of the symptoms of allergy or a cold. Which cell is responsible for causing the runny nose?
Neutrophils
What type of white blood cell is involved in fighting off parasitic infections, such as flukes and roundworms?
Neutrophils
What type of white blood cell would you find in the greatest numbers in an infected cut?
Neutrophils
Which group of white blood cells are classified as granulocytes?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
If agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, what is the result?
No agglutination occurs
In which pregnancy are an Rh-positive mom and an Rh-positive child at risk of developing erythroblastosis fetalis?
No pregnancy
A person who was faithfully avoiding eating any fats could have problems with blood clotting. Why would blood clotting be affected?
They could not produce platelets
How do basophils respond to an injury?
They produce antibodies
Which two enzymes are needed to convert plasminogen to plasmin?
Thrombin and tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
When clots are formed in deep veins (deep vein thrombosis), one of the dangers is that the clot can travel to the lungs. This condition is known as ___________________
Thrombocytopenia
A major substance that stimulates platelet formation is ____________
Thrombopoietin
A condition in which platelet counts are low is known as ____________
Thrombosis
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as aspirin, prevent clotting by inhibiting formation of what substance by the platelets?
Thromboxane A2
A blood clot attached to the luminal (inner) surface of a blood vessel is called a ______________
Thrombus
A loose and traveling blood clot is referred to as a ______________
Thrombus
Bedridden patients, due to inactivity, may end up with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The treatment of choice is administration of ______________ to dissolve any formed clots.
Tissue-plasminogen activator (t-PA)
The primary function of a mature red blood cell is ____________
Transport of respiratory gases
Which blood type can safely be transfused into a person with type O blood?
Type AB
What type of blood is considered to be the "universal donor"?
Type O negative
What is the primary site of erythropoiesis in an adult?
Bone marrow
Platelets promote vessel repair by releasing __________
Calcium
What effects almost every aspect of the clotting process?
Calcium ions and vitamin K
What type of molecules are the antigens found on our blood cells?
Carbohydrates
A decreased number of megakaryocytes would interfere with what process?
Cell-mediated immunity
In the _____________ phase of hemostasis, fibrin is deposited, which creates a solid blood clot.
Coagulation
What substance is released from basophils to prevent blood from clotting?
EPO
In the process of hemostasis, what triggers the Extrinsic Pathway of the coagulation phase?
Factor III (Tissue Factor or TF)
During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to __________
Ferritin
Thrombin is required to convert _________________
Fibrinogen to fibrin
A deficiency in production of Protein C results in problems with _____________
Fibrinolysis
In the ____________ phase of hemostasis, local contraction of an injured blood vessel occurs
Fibrinolysis
Signs of iron-deficiency anemia include ________________
Increase in hematocrit, hemoglobin, and O2 carrying capacity
Placing blood in a test tube initiates which pathway in the clotting process?
Intrinsic pathway
How does heparin prevent clot formation?
It binds to thrombin and converts it to an enzyme that activated protein C
What is the term for the characteristic of white blood cells in which they are attracted to a specific chemical stimulus?
Phagocytosis
What does the term thrombocytopoiesis mean?
Platelet production
In order to produce a massive amount of fibrin molecules, thrombin needs to be present. To ensure abundance of thrombin production, thrombin stimulates its own production by stimulating the formation of tissue factor and PF-3, which activates further platelet aggregation. This pattern of stimulation is known as a ________________
Positive feedback loop
Megakaryocytes are specialized cells of the bone marrow that are responsible for ___________
Specific immune responses
Even if blood is carefully collected into a tube that has not been treated with an anticoagulant, it will clot. Which part of hemostasis is triggered by the activation of clotting factor XII?
The intrinsic pathway
What is hematocrit?
The percentage of formed elements in whole blood
