Udemy Practice Test

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

Using the following three-point estimates: Optimistic = 3 days, Pessimistic = 5 days, Most Likely = 7 days. calculate the expected value using the triangular distribution formula?

5 days

What are the different risk response strategies for negative risks or threats?

Accept, Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, and Escalate

If you create a contingency reserve to manage risks in your project, this can be referred to as:

Active acceptance

The CPI=0.93 and the SPI=1.1. How is your project doing?

Ahead of schedule and over budget

Calculate the estimate at completion (EAC) using the following values: BAC = 9,000, AC = 1,500, EV = 1,000, PV = 2,000

All ETC and EAC formulas are rooted in the current project performance. Estimate at completion (EAC) is the expected cost of the work when completed. The most common formula for EAC is BAC/CPI. BAC = 9,000 (given), CPI = EV/AC. CPI = 1,000/1,500 = 0.6667. EAC = BAC/CPI = 9,000/0.6667 = 13,500 based on the current project performance.

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Work process?

Approved change requests

The Budget at Completion (BAC) for a project is $200,000. The Actual Costs (AC) to date are $160,000. The cumulative Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.8. What is the Estimate to Completion (ETC) for the project?

BAC = 200,000 (given), AC= 160,000 (given), CPI = 0.8 (given), The Estimate to Completion (ETC) equation = EAC - AC EAC = BAC/CPI = 200,000/0.8 = 250,000 ETC = 250,000 - 160,000 = 90,000.

You're using an Agile approach to manage your project. When should you ideally conduct The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Before the start of each iteration

In the communication model, who is responsible for ensuring that the message was received and understood?

Both the sender and the receiver - The two parties (the sender and the receiver). It is the sender's responsibility to make sure that the information is clear and complete and to ensure that the message is correctly understood. It is the receiver's responsibility for ensuring the message was received in its entirety, understood and acknowledged to the sender.

Which of the following is an example of a chart, used on agile projects, that tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog?

Burndown Chart

What are the inputs to the Develop Project Charter Process?

Business documents/case, agreements, EEFs, and OPAs

A change request has just been formally documented and rejected by the Change Control Board (CCB). Which of the following documents must be updated first?

Change log - The change log is updated regardless of if the change is approved or rejected

Which conflict resolution technique is best for a long-lasting solution?

Collaborate/Problem Solving - the collaborate technique is also called problem solve and is the best way to resolve conflict. One of the key actions you'll perform with this technique is a fact-finding mission. The thinking here is that one right solution to a problem exists and the facts will bear out the solution. Once the facts are uncovered, they're presented to the parties and the decision will be clear. Thus, the solution becomes a permanent one and the conflict expires. This is a win-win solution. Multiple viewpoints are discussed and shared using this technique, and team members have the opportunity to examine all the perspectives of the issue. Collaborating will lead to true consensus where team members commit to the decision. This is the conflict resolution approach project managers use most often and is an example of a win-win conflict resolution technique

Which conflict resolution technique is most likely to result in a permanent resolution?

Collaborate/problem solve

Which conflict resolution technique offers project managers the best option for resolution?

Collaborate/problem solve - this is a win win

You have team members located in 5 countries. Due to the nature of the project, you are unable to find a time that is acceptable to all team members. Which conflict resolution technique is best suited for this situation?

Compromise

which of the following processes should you use to review the change requests that have been approved and implemented?

Control Quality - In Control Quality process all approved change requests should be reviewed to verify that they were implemented as approved. This review should also check that partial changes are completed, and all parts have been properly implemented, tested, completed, and certified.

The quality team would like to know how many errors or defects have been identified in the system and how many are not yet fixed. What process is the quality team carrying out?

Control quality - Control quality. Essential for the exam! Control Quality to analyze and examine the product defects (errors). Quality assurance (Mange Quality) to analyze and examine the issues related to the process not to deliverables defects.

Which project management process provides inputs to the formal acceptance of project deliverables?

Control quality - Formal acceptance of project deliverables occurs through the Validate Scope process. The Control Quality process is responsible for verifying the correctness of a deliverable, while the Validate Scope process is responsible for obtaining formal acceptance of the deliverable. Verified deliverables that are completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process becomes an inputs into the validate scope process. Formal acceptance occurs after quality control activities are performed.

Which of the following tools and techniques of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

Data analysis, decision making, data representation, communication skills, interpersonal and team skills, and meetings

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Manage Quality Process?

Design for X

Which of the following are valid initiating processes?

Develop the Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders

Which of the following processes should you use to review the approved change requests?

Direct and Manage project work - Approved change requests are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process, and include those requests reviewed and approved for implementation by the project manager. Approved change requests come about as a result of the approved change requests output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. Change requests are approved or denied during this process, and once the decision has been made, approved changes come back through the Direct and Manage Project Work process for the project team to implement

Which of the following dependencies are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project?

Discretionary dependencies - Discretionary dependencies are defined by the project team. Discretionary dependencies are also known as preferred logic, soft logic, or preferential logic. These are usually process- or procedure-driven or "best-practice" techniques based on past experience.

The project manager needs to obtain feedback from the customer and the relevant stakeholders in order to:

Evaluate the customer's satisfaction

Which of the following coordinates the project resources to carry out the project as per the project management plan?

Executing process group

Which of the following is a tool and technique of the Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Expert judgement

Which of the following are tools and techniques of the Identify Stakeholders process?

Expert judgement, data gathering, data analysis, data representation, and meetings

What are the tools and techniques of the Developing the Project Management Plan process?

Expert judgement, data gathering, interpersonal and team skills, and meetings

Which of the following techniques should you consider in the closing phase?

Expert judgment - Tools and techniques of the close project or phase are (Very important): .1 Expert judgment .2 Data analysis • Document analysis • Regression analysis • Trend analysis • Variance analysis 3 Meetings.

Which of the following are tools and techniques of the Monitor Communications process?

Expert judgment, PMIS, data representation (stakeholder engagement assessment matrix), interpersonal and team skills (observation/conversation), and meetings

The customer wants your project to be completed 30 days earlier than planned. You believe that you can meet the target by overlapping project activities. What is the approach that you plan to use?

Fast Tracking - A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration. Fast tracking only works if activities can be overlapped to shorten the project duration.

A project is slipping on its schedule. Management is worried that the project will be late and that this will cost the organization several thousand dollars in fines and penalties. They've asked the project manager to use a schedule duration compression technique that will help the project finish on time. The technique that the project manager can use, however, should not add costs to the project. What duration compression technique should the project manager use in this instance?

Fast tracking - Fast tracking is the best answer in this scenario. Costs were the original constraint on this project, so it's unlikely the project manager would get more resources (crashing = costs) to assist with the project. Fast tracking can increase project risk and might cause the project team to have to rework tasks. Crashing often increases the costs of the project. Also consider that crashing doesn't always come up with a reasonable result as well.

The project manager meets with the project team to determine the probability of the project is succeeding, and also examine the viability of the product, service, or result of the project. In what activity is the project manager involved?

Feasibility studies - these studies are undertaken to determine whether the project is a viable project or to determine the probability of the project succeeding

When an organization identifies an opportunity to which it would like to respond, it often initiates a:

Feasibility study

Which of the following are outputs from the Close Project or Phase Process?

Final product, service, or result transition

You are ready to enter a contract with a seller for a supply of car batteries, but you are unsure about the type of contract you should select. What type of contract would you suggest, so that your organization does not incur any financial losses?

Fixed Price

Which type of contract represents the highest risk to the seller?

Fixed-price

Which tool will you use during the Collect Requirements process that brings a trained moderator guiding the group through an interactive discussion, designed to be more conversational than a one-on-one interview?

Focus Groups - Focus groups bring together prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result. A trained moderator guides the group through an interactive discussion, designed to be more conversational than a one-on-one interview.

Which of the following can be used to manage and store contract documents and records?

Historical information

You are participating in developing the project charter process. What input are you most likely to need to perform this process?

Historical information and Lessons Learned Repository (OPAs)

Close Project or Phase Process:

INPUTS: Lessons learned register and accepted deliverables TOOLS & TECHNIQUES: expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings OUTPUTS: Final report

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

Identify Risks Process

Which of the following is done first?

Identify Stakeholders - this is performed in the initiating phase

In your project, you will use a code of accounts to:

Identify each component of the WBS - Each work package in the WBS is assigned a unique identifier known as a code of accounts identifier. This is typically a number, or a combination of letters and numbers, that's used to track the costs, schedules, and scope associated with that work package. Code of accounts identifiers can also be assigned to other unique components of the WBS, but for study purposes, we'll focus on the work package level

Which of the following tools and techniques for the Conduct Procurement process is used to check and compare proposed pricing to the benchmark?

Independent cost estimate

The project charter is created at the end of which of the following processes?

Initiating process

When you collect requirements, it may be possible to get bias among stakeholders. Which data gathering technique helps reduce bias in collecting the requirements and keeps any one person from having undue influence on the outcome?

Interviews

During the Identify Stakeholders process, a number of project documents might get updated. Which of the following project documents get updated the most during this process?

Issue Log

In your project, if a problem occurs between two stakeholders, what is the name of the document that lists any problems that stakeholders may have and records what is being done about them?

Issue Log

Which of the following statements regarding a configuration management system is true?

It documents the procedures and authorized approval levels for managing and controlling changes of the deliverables of the project - Configuration control is concerned with changes to the specifications of the deliverables or project management processes. Configuration control is managed through the configuration management system. The configuration management system is a subsystem of the project management information system. It documents the procedures and authorized approval levels for managing and controlling changes to the physical characteristics of the deliverables. If you are using a configuration management system to control product scope, the change control system must also integrate with it. The configuration management system manages changes to product and project scope and ensures that these changes are reasonable and make sense before they're processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

You're are working on a software development project. Which tool would you use to bring business subject matter experts and the development project team together to improve the software development process?

Joint application design/development

Which of the following interpersonal skills displayed by communicating a vision and inspiring stakeholders to support the work and outcomes of the project?

Leadership Skills

Which of the following is an input to the Close Project or Phase Process?

Lessons Learned Register

The organizational process assets that can influence the Close Project or Phase process include:

Lessons learned, and final project audits

Which of the following is a valid input that a project manager can use to perform the Develop Project Charter process?

Letter of intent - letters of intent. Agreements are input into the develop project charter process. The major components in an agreement document will vary and may include; Agreements may take the form of contracts, letters of intent, and memorandums of understanding (MOUs), service level agreements (SLA), and letters of agreement, verbal agreements, email, or statement of work (SOW). Typically, a contract is used when a project is being performed for an external customer.

You and your team have decided to conduct more tests because of the high risk associated with your project. What type of risk strategy are you using?

Mitigation - According to the PMBOK® Guide, 6th. Edition, the purpose of mitigation is to reduce the probability that a risk will occur and/or reduce the impact of the risk to a level where you can accept the risk and its outcomes. It's easier to take actions early on that will reduce the probability of a risk event or its consequences than it is to fix the damage once it has occurred. Some examples of risk mitigation include performing more tests, using less complicated processes, creating prototypes, and choosing more reliable vendors.

Which of the following is considered an output from the Close Project or Phase Process?

OPAs Updated - Outputs from close project or phase process are very important for the PMP exam! Project documents updates, final product, service, or result transition, final report and organizational process assets updates.

Which of the following is inputted to the Develop Project Charter process?

Organizational culture and political climate (EEFs)

While developing the Scope Management Plan, it is important to consider the following enterprise environmental factors (EEFs):

Organizational culture, structure, and infrastructure

Which of the following are the tools and techniques used in the Monitor Communications Process?

PMIS, interpersonal and team skills, meetings, expert judgement, and data representation

Which of the following tasks must the project manager perform to avoid scope creep caused by uncontrolled changes?

Perform integrated change control process - Unapproved or undocumented changes that sometimes make their way into the project are referred to as scope creep. Make certain your project team members are well versed in the change control process and insist that they inform you of shenanigans like this. Scope creep can kill an otherwise viable project. Little changes add up and eventually impact budget, schedule, and quality. This way, scope creep can be avoided, and project changes can be managed. Hence, the PM must perform all changes through the Integrated Change Control process.

You are working with a risk manager to assess the probability of occurrence and the impact for each risk in order to prioritize risks for an action or for further analysis. What project management process is associated with this activity?

Perform qualitative risk analysis

You are currently in the Control Schedule process. You consider using a tool to compare and analyze schedule performance against the schedule baseline, and also examine elements such as actual start and end dates for activities and the remaining time to finish uncompleted activities. This tool is called (a):

Performance reviews

A make-or-buy decision is performed during which of the following procurement process?

Plan Procurement Management

In which phase is the project kickoff meeting established?

Planning

You are on the process of gathering requirements and establishing estimates for the project. Which process group are you in?

Planning

Examples of cost of conformance?

Prevention Costs, Training, Document processes, Equipment Time to do it right

Which of the following is part of the Manage Quality process?

Problem solving

The project manager develops a process improvement plan to encourage continuous process improvement during the life of the project. Which of the following is a valid tool or technique to assist the project manager in assuring the success of the process improvement plan?

Process analysis

Which of the following is part of the Manage Quality process?

Process analysis

Which of the following are examples of the organizational process assets?

Processes, policies, and procedures - For the exam, remember that organizational process assets encompass many elements, including policies, guidelines, standards, historical information, and so on, and that they're divided into two categories: 1) processes, policies, and procedures, and 2) corporate knowledge base. OPAs are internal to the organization. For the exam, make certain you understand what the organizational process assets entail and that you can differentiate them from the enterprise environmental factors. All other options are considered part of the enterprise environmental factors

What input do you most likely need to perform the Develop Project Charter process?

Procurement Statement of Work (SOW)

Which document provides high-level risk information that is useful when planning for project risk management?

Project Charter - The project charter is an important input to the Plan Risk Management process since it provides the high-level project description and boundaries, high-level requirements, and risks.

Senior management needs to be informed regarding the progress of your project. You will be making progress reports based on the scope, schedule, and cost details provided in the:

Project Management Plan

Determining if the project scope has been completed relies mostly on the use of a:

Project Scope statement

Which of the following is a valid input that a project manager can use to perform the Develop Project Charter process?

Project Statement of Work (SOW)

A document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. It includes project purpose, and measurable project objectives and related success criteria. It also has a clearly defined start date for the project. Which document is this describing?

Project charter - The Project Charter is a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

Which project document would record the details of the person responsible for authorizing the release of this confidential information?

Project communication management plan

What are some examples of Project Documents?

Project schedule, requirements documentation, risk register, stakeholder register

You would like to know more about the project deliverables, work required to complete those deliverables, project constraints, and assumptions. Which of the following documents would be most useful for this purpose?

Project scope statement - The preparation of a detailed project scope statement builds upon the major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints that are documented during project initiation. During project planning, the project scope is defined and described with greater specificity as more information about the project is known. Existing risks, assumptions, and constraints are analyzed for completeness and added or updated as necessary. The Define Scope process can be highly iterative. In iterative life cycle projects, a high-level vision will be developed for the overall project, but the detailed scope is determined one iteration at a time, and the detailed planning for the next iteration is carried out as work progresses on the current project scope and deliverables.

You are using your e-learning site to post large amounts of information that team members can log into to read. This is an example of what sort of Communication method?

Pull communication (TEAM MEMBER ORIENTED)

Which of the following documents provides a means to track requirements throughout the project lifecycle, and also helps to ensure that requirements approved in the requirements documentation are delivered at the end of the project?

Requirements traceability matrix

In your project, you have several categories of resources, including labor, hardware, equipment, supplies, and so on. Which of the following documents lists the resources by category and type that is used for planning, managing and controlling project work?

Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

When writing the roles and responsibilities for team members, you should document the role, authority, responsibility, and competency for each team member. Where must you document this information?

Resource Management Plan

As a project manager, you have an unresolved issue between two members in your project while managing your project work. What is the best way to resolve this issue?

Review the issue log

The primary purpose of the procurement audit is

Reviewing contracting processes for completeness, accuracy, and effectiveness

Internal Failure Costs (Failures found by the project)?

Rework or Scrap

Stakeholder risk appetite, risk categories, and definitions of risk probability and impacts are contained in which of the following?

Risk Management plan

Which document contains a predefined set of risk categories you can use to determine both individual risks and overall project risks?

Risk Prompt List - A prompt list is somewhat similar to a checklist in that you have a predefined set of risk categories you can use to determine both individual risks and overall project risks. You can use the lowest level of the RBS to construct a prompt list for individual risks.

A risk register is created during which type of process?

Risk Register - The risk register is an output of the Identify Risks process, and updates to the risk register occur as an output of every risk process that follows this one. By the end of the Plan Risk Responses process, the risk register contains these primary elements: identified list of risks, risk owners, risk triggers, risk strategies, contingency plans, and contingency reserves.

Which of the following is an element/s of the enterprise environmental factors?

Structure, culture, and infrastructure

A project manager is creating a document that establishes the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines for the team. It specifies how the team will interact, communicate, reach decisions, hold meetings, and communicates the ground rules for the project team. What document is the project manager creating?

Team charter - Team charter is a favorite topic on the exam. Team charter is an output from Plan Resource Management Process and input into Develop Team process. The team charter establishes clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. All project team members share responsibility for ensuring the rules documented in the team charter are followed. The team charter can be reviewed and updated periodically to ensure a continued understanding of the team ground rules and to orient and integrate new team members. The team charter is a document that establishes the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines for the team. The team charter may include but is not limited to: 1) Team values. 2) Communication guidelines. 3) Decision-making criteria and process. 4) Conflict resolution process. 5) Meeting guidelines. 6) Team agreements.

Appraisal costs?

Testing, destructive testing loss, and inspections

Which of these are a component (s) of the scope baseline that is contained in the project management plan?

The WBS, approved version of a scope statement, and WBS dictionary - Scope baseline contains the scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary. Project scope may evolve throughout the project

Identification of organizational strategies, goals, and objectives, analyzing the situation, making recommendations, and defining evaluation criteria is applicable to any organization's projects. These elements together describe which of the following?

The business case

Which document provides the basis to measure success and progress throughout the project life cycle by comparing the results with the objectives and the identified success criteria?

The business case

The WBS is the output of which of the following processes?

The create WBS process

You have received the three-point estimates for an activity. The three-point estimates are as follows: The most likely estimate is $7, the optimistic estimate is $6, and the pessimistic estimate is $10. What is the expected activity cost of this activity using triangular distribution formula?

The expected activity cost using PERT distribution formula (also known as beta distribution) is calculated this way: [Optimistic + most likely + pessimistic] / 3. Therefore, the answer is [6 + 7 + 10] / 3 = $ 7.33

You are performing closure activities for the project and meet with the project sponsor to review the final report. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the final report?

The final report is used to evaluate the project, scope, and product quality - For the CAPM exam, the final report provides a summary of the project performance, and used to evaluate the project, scope, and product quality. According to the PMBOK 6edition, the final report can include information such as: 1) Summary level description of the project or phase. 2) Scope objectives, the criteria used to evaluate the scope, and evidence that the completion criteria were met. 3) Quality objectives, the criteria used to evaluate the project and product quality, the verification and actual milestone delivery dates, and reasons for variances. Cost objectives, including the acceptable cost range, actual costs, and reasons for any variances. 4) Summary of the validation information for the final product, service, or result

The product scope description, deliverables, and acceptance criteria together describe elements of which of the following?

The project SOW

In your project, if Earned Value (EV) is $200, Actual Cost (AC) is $250, and Planned Value (PV) is $300, what is the status of the project?

The project is behind schedule and over budget - CV = EV-AC = 200-250 = - 50 (over budget) SV = EV-PV = 200-300 = - 100 (behind schedule) OR CPI=EV/AC=0.8<1, so over budget and SPI=EV/PV=0.67<1, so behind schedule

In your project, if earned value (EV) = 50,000, actual cost (AC) = 30,000, and planned value = 65,000. What can you determine about the project?

The project is behind schedule and under budget - EV= 50,000 (given), AC = 30,000 (given), and PV= 65,000 (given) Based on the values provided, we can calculate CPI, SPI. CPI = EV/AC = 50,000/30,000 = 1.667 > 1 (under budget) SPI = EV/PV = 50,000/65,000 = 0.77 < 1 (behind schedule). When you see an SPI that's lower than 1, that means your project is behind schedule, and your CPI is lower than 1, which means that your project is over budget

What is the purpose of performing the phase gate?

The project's performance is compared to the project management plan to determine if the project should be changed, terminated, or continue as planned - At the control point ((sometimes referred to as a phase review, phase gate, control gate, or Kill point), the project charter and business documents are reexamined based on the current environment. At that time, the project's performance is compared to the project management plan to determine if the project should be changed, terminated, or continue as planned. The PMBOK® Guide states that phase reviews are also known by a few other names: phase gate, phase entrance, phase exit, stage gate, and kill points.

Which of the following inputs will the customer provide to the project manager in this process of Developing the Project Charter?

The statement of work (SOW) as part of a request for proposal (RFP) - For external projects, the statement of work can be received from the customer as part of a bid document, (e.g., a request for proposal, request for information, or request for bid) or as part of a contract (agreements or contract is input to the develop project charter). The SOW references the following: Business need, Product scope description, and Strategic plan.

The develop schedule process receives an essential input from the scope baseline. Which one is it?

The work breakdown structure (WBS)

In your project, if the scope of work is not completely defined, and management wants you to begin work immediately. What type of contract should you ask for in negotiations?

Time and Material - The scope of work is not completely defined. In that case, the project is at a higher risk, and the full amount of the material costs is not known at the time the contract is awarded. Time and material is used when a precise statement of work cannot be quickly prescribed.

You are performing the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process and want to determine which risk event has the greatest potential for impact by examining all the uncertain elements at their baseline values. Which of the following tool will you use?

Tornado diagrams - a form of sensitivity analysis

Which of the following methods should be your first course of action to resolve the issues, especially after negotiations failed to resolve these issues?

Use the ADR procedures in the contract - When you are dealing with contested changes, ADR (alternative dispute resolution) is the technique you should use first to try to reach resolution. The other options are alternatives after you've tried ADR. Arbitration is a form of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) and could be a named tool in the contract for resolving disputes.

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the estimate costs process?

Voting

External failure costs?

liabilities, warranty work, lost business


Set pelajaran terkait

Chapter 52: Assessment and Management of Patients with Endocrine Disorders

View Set

Test 1 Fundamentals of nutrition

View Set

Code HS Test Web Design (Picasso) units 3 - 5 quiz questions

View Set

Business Final Exam Review Dale Fodness

View Set

CPT Certificarion Test {Section 1}

View Set

Persuasive language techniques: Definitions and examples

View Set

pharmaceutics practice questions

View Set

Aceable Agent Level 2 - Chapter 3

View Set