Ch 13 Test Review
A large puncture wound or laceration to the neck must be immediately sealed with an occlusive dressing to prevent: A. an air embolus. B. C-spine injury. C. airway compromise. D. infection or cellulitis.
A
As soon as the patient's airway is opened, which of the following is NOT part of what the EMT should consider doing NEXT? A. Determine the need for spinal immobilization. B. Determine if the breathing is adequate or inadequate. C. Determine the need for mechanical ventilation. D. Determine the need for early oxygen therapy.
A
At what point would the EMT consider the administration of oxygen to a patient with chest pain and tachycardia? A. If the pulse oximeter dropped below 94 percent B. If the pulse oximeter drops more than 2 percent in any 5-minute period C. Only if the transport time to the hospital is greater than 60 minutes D. If the patient stated that the chest pain lasted more than 30 minutes
A
Cool skin that is moist is referred to as cool and clammy. It is often related to: A. blood loss or decreased perfusion. B. sweating from heat exposure. C. overdose of a stimulatory drug. D. frostbite or hypothermia.
A
During the assessment of the vital signs during the secondary assessment, for which assessment parameter will the EMT typically use a stethoscope? A. Blood pressure B. Pulse oximetry reading C. Heart rate D. Skin characteristics
A
During the primary assessment, you are listening for sounds that may indicate partial airway obstruction. Each of the following may be heard in the patient with partial obstruction, EXCEPT: A. rales or crackles. B. snoring. C. gurgling. D. stridor.
A
For the mnemonic OPQRST, what is indicted by the "O" in relation to the medical patient? A. Onset B. Obtunded C. Other factors D. Observation
A
Forming a general impression of your patient includes each of the following, EXCEPT: A. obtaining a set of vital signs. B. the patient's sex. C. estimating the patient's age. D. determining complaint as trauma or medical.
A
Given the time constraints that EMTs often face as they assess and care for patients, the reassessment of the patient is usually completed: A. while in the ambulance. B. after patient care has been transferred to the hospital staff. C. upon arrival at the hospital. D. immediately after the primary survey
A
In which of the following situations would you abandon completing your modified secondary assessment and instead conduct a complete secondary assessment? A. While en route to the hospital, the patient's heart rate keeps climbing and the blood pressure keeps falling. B. While on scene, the patient has an RTS of 12, and en route he still has an RTS of 12. C. While on scene, the patient states that he does not want to go to the hospital. D. While en route to the hospital, you get diverted to a freestanding immediate care center.
A
Major bleeding should be controlled A. immediately. B. after contacting medical direction. C. once en route to the emergency department. D. during the rapid secondary assessment.
A
Reassessing your stable patient's chief complaint while en route to the hospital will enable you to NOT only establish his response to your treatment, but also: A. the presence of any additional complaints. B. the need to continue to the hospital. C. if the patient's blood glucose level is dropping. D. possible changes to the vital signs.
A
The range of a normal respiratory rate for an adult patient is between: A. 12 and 20 per minute. B. 14 and 28 per minute. C. 8 and 24 per minute. D. 6 and 18 per minute.
A
Tracheal deviation found during the general impression or primary examination may indicate a/an: A. tension pneumothorax. B. airway blockage. C. flail segment. D. serious injury to the heart.
A
What are the important assessment parameters in determining the circulation status in a 25 year old male who was shot in the leg, after the major bleed was controlled? A. Color, Temperature, and Skin Condition B. Lung Sounds C. Brachial Pulse D. Pulse oximetry reading
A
What does the EMT know about the modified medical assessment of a stable patient? A. The EMT knows that it is directed by the patient's complaints. B. The EMT knows that it is only the reassessment of the vital signs that should be taken every 10 minutes. C. The EMT knows that it is a detailed head-to-toe examination D. The EMT knows that it is a rapid head-to-toe examination.
A
What is the highest numerical value that is assigned to eye opening when computing the GCS? A. 4 points B. 3 points C. 5 points D. 6 points
A
What is the purpose of computing the Revised Trauma Score? A. It is a numerical way to identify the severity of trauma. B. It is used to exclusively as a statistical parameter for determining the frequency of traumatic events in an EMS system. C. It is a score that the EMT can use to let the family know the injury level of their loved one. D. It is a score that lets the ED know how neurologically impaired the patient is.
A
What should the EMT do if a patient is complaining of dyspnea, has ashen nail beds, and has a pulse ox of 95 percent on room air? A. Administer oxygen. B. Withhold oxygen, since the pulse ox is over 94 percent. C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position for transport to aid breathing. D. Call for ALS backup to assess for the need to give oxygen.
A
What would be the last component of assessment that the EMT would ascertain in completing a secondary assessment on a stable trauma patient who is complaining of pain to the shoulder after playing football in the backyard? A. History B. Physical exam C. Breath sounds D. Vitals
A
When assessing a patient using the major body systems approach, which body system is typically not included in the assessment? A. Genitourinary B. Musculoskeletal C. Pulmonary D. Cardiovascular
A
When conducting the secondary assessment on a trauma patient whose upper body was under a car that fell on him, you should check the chest for superficial wounds, punctures, and: A. paradoxical chest motion. B. jugular vein distention. C. cervical sensation. D. capillary refill.
A
Which of the following abnormal airway sounds, if present in an unresponsive patient, would be considered a critical finding? A. Stridor B. Sighing C. Hiccupping D. Grunting
A
Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with a patient who is struggling to breathe? A. Excessive abdominal muscle use B. Pink tone of the skin around the nail beds C. Symmetrical movement of the chest during inhalation and exhalation D. A breathing rate of 12 to 20 breaths per minute
A
Which of the following components is NOT part of the secondary assessment of a trauma patient who is stable? A. Rapid head-to-toe exam B. Focused assessment of the injury site C. Obtaining a patient history D. Determining the vitals
A
Which of the following is TRUE regarding crowing and stridor? A. Both are commonly associated with swelling of the airway. B. Airway adjuncts should be used in a child with suspected infection of the epiglottis. C. They are usually relieved by proper positioning of the airway and airway adjuncts. D. Both are rattling sounds produced on exhalation.
A
Which of the following is considered to be a critical finding of the neck in your unresponsive medical patient? A. Tracheal tugging B. Presence of a carotid pulse C. Reddened skin around the neck D. Presence of breath sounds in the trachea
A
Which of the following is not part of the neurological assessment that the EMT would perform during the body systems approach? A. Ask the patient about any bowel or bladder changes. B. Assess motor function by having the patient grip fingers of both of your hands simultaneously. C. Assess sensory function by asking, "Which finger am I touching?" D. Pinch the hand and ask the patient to identify the hand in which he feels pain.
A
Which of the following terms means closed or blocked? A. Occluded B. Partial C. Patent D. Stented
A
While assessing the pulse in a patient as you determine the vitals, which of the following should you be sure to ascertain? A. Rate, location, strength, and regularity B. Location, strength, and rate C. Rate, location, and regularity D. Regularity, location, and strength
A
Why may the EMT have to change the general impression of the patient on the basis of information learned during the primary or secondary assessment? A. An intoxicated patient may present as a medical patient but actually also have a traumatic injury. B. The EMS service has a short transport time and may not be able to complete the primary survey before arriving at the hospital. C. Once the general impression has been formed, the EMT should never change it, as this will cause a delay in patient care. D. Once formed by the EMT, the general impression can be changed only by a provider with a higher certification level.
A
You are assessing a 35-year-old female patient who fell and struck her head while skiing. She is confused about the day of the week, and she does not remember falling, although a witness says that she collided with a tree. She was wearing a helmet at the time, according to bystanders. On the basis of what you know already, what is her priority? A. Unstable B. Potentially stable C. Potentially unstable D. Stable
A
You are called to the scene for a female patient who was ejected from a car she was riding in when it collided with another car. The driver of the other vehicle was killed in the accident. Your patient is visibly shaken, but only has minor injuries visible. What will you do regarding protecting this patient's spine? A. Provide spine motion restriction. B. Apply only a cervical collar. C. Decide that spinal protection is not needed. D. Immobilize the torso to a half spine board.
A
You are working with a new EMT and while on scene with an unresponsive medical patient, your partner asks you when he should obtain vitals. What would you tell him? A. After the rapid secondary assessment B. After the history has been obtained C. After the pulse ox has been applied D. Before the rapid secondary assessment
A
An unresponsive medical patient requires airway management. Which of the following is TRUE regarding airway control of the unresponsive medical patient? A. The EMT will be forced to use the modified jaw lift on this medical patient. B. Manual airway maneuvers helps to prevent the tongue and epiglottis from blocking the airway of an unresponsive patient. C. An airway adjunct should always be used to keep the airway on an unresponsive patient open. D. Manual airway maneuvers are not necessary if the patient is a medical patient.
B
At what point would the EMT consider the administration of oxygen to a patient with abdominal pain? A. Only if the transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes B. If the pulse oximeter dropped below 94 percent C. Only if the pulse oximeter drops to 96 percent D. If the patient stated that the abdominal pain has lasted over 6 hours
B
During your ride-along time as an EMT student, you are called for a female patient with a severe headache that occurred suddenly and now radiates into her neck and jaw. She said that this occurred after she fell backwards and struck her head on the ground about 2 hours ago. Learning that the pain started 2 hours ago would be what part of the OPQRST history? A. S B. T C. R D. Q
B
For infants and children, significant mechanisms of injury include: A. a fall of 3 feet when the child was accidently dropped by a parent. B. a vehicle collision in which the patient was unrestrained. C. laceration to a finger from pinching it in a door. D. any indication of physical abuse.
B
If your trauma patient had an initial GCS score of 13, and now has a score of 10, what does this imply? A. The patient is improving. B. The patient is deteriorating. C. Someone miscalculated the first GCS score as the maximum score one can receive is 10. D. The patient is still stable.
B
In performing a secondary assessment on a trauma patient for whom no critical findings were identified in the primary assessment, in what order should the EMT complete the steps? A. SAMPLE and OPQRST, modified secondary assessment, vitals B. Modified secondary assessment, vital signs, history C. Vitals, rapid secondary assessment, medical history D. History, vitals, medical history
B
Once the scene is safe and controlled, you prepare to begin the primary assessment of the patient. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the primary assessment? A. The primary assessment includes airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) and vitals. B. Critical conditions identified during the primary assessment must be treated immediately as found. C. You cannot gain enough information about the patient during the primary assessment to make a transport decision. D. The main purpose of the primary assessment is to perform a head-to-toe physical exam to discover injuries.
B
The pulse oximeter is failing to read properly, and the patient is complaining of dyspnea, abdominal pain, and nausea and is becoming more and more anxious. What should the EMT do? A. Provide four baby aspirins for the patient to chew and swallow, and then begin rapid transport. B. Administer high-concentration oxygen. C. Administer low-concentration oxygen. D. Repeat the SAMPLE and OPQRST history.
B
What is typically one of the initial interventions provided, once EMS arrives, for an unresponsive patient who has been injured by a fall? A. Application of the AED B. Manual stabilization of the cervical spine C. Application of oxygen D. Acquiring a 4-lead ECG
B
When discussing the reassessment phase, the EMT would likely say that it: A. is performed every 15 minutes on the unstable patient. B. is performed continuously, until arrival at the hospital. C. is only performed on patients for whom a physical exam was performed. D. is done only if the EMT actually provided some intervention.
B
When you are treating a patient who is unstable, you should reassess the patient's condition at LEAST once every how many minutes? A. 15 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20
B
Which of the following BEST describes establishing manual in-line stabilization? A. Securing the patient to a KED with a cervical collar in place. B. Bringing the patient's head into a neutral in-line position and holding it there. C. Applying a cervical collar to the patient's neck. D. Securing the patient to a backboard with a cervical collar in place.
B
Which of the following BEST outlines the sequences for completing the reassessment phase by the EMT while en route to the hospital? A. Assess the vitals, repeat the primary and secondary assessments, and note the effectiveness of the interventions. B. Repeat the primary assessment, reassess the vitals, repeat the secondary assessment, assess effectiveness of interventions, and note trends in the patient's condition. C. Repeat the primary and secondary assessments, obtain vital signs, note trends in the patient's condition, and reassess the effectiveness of the interventions. D. Repeat the primary assessment, repeat the secondary assessment, and assess vitals.
B
Which of the following circulation assessment findings best describes a hemorrhage that the EMT should manage immediately? A. Bright red hemorrhage from the temporal scalp from a fall injury B. Heavy venous/arterial bleeding from the thigh due to a penetration injury C. Venous bleed from the antecubital fossa following a failed IV cannulation D. Dark red hemorrhage from the proximal tibia due to an open fracture
B
Which of the following is TRUE about the inspection of the abdomen in a patient who sustained blunt abdominal trauma? A. If the patient is minimally responsive, you will see no indication of pain on palpation of an abdominal injury. B. Discoloration around the navel and in the flank area usually appears several hours after the injury. C. Palpate the abdominal quadrants closest to the painful area first. D. A distended and firm abdomen is normal for a patient in good physical condition.
B
Which of the following is most likely to produce critical injuries in an adult patient? A. A vehicle collision at low speed B. Partial ejection from a vehicle that was involved in an automobile crash C. A fall of 8 feet from a ladder D. Dropping a motorcycle while stopped at a red light
B
Which of the following patients would receive a modified secondary assessment rather than a rapid secondary assessment? A. A patient with absent alveolar breath sounds B. A patient with a laceration to the finger C. A patient with acute abdominal pain D. A patient who has blood in the airway and is unresponsive
B
Which of the following findings, individually, would be sufficient to classify a trauma patient as a high priority? A. Heart rate of 108 B. GCS of 12 C. History of thoracic trauma D. Respirations of 24
B
While on scene with a trauma patient, when should the EMT consider requesting ALS backup? A. For all patients B. Whenever your patient's airway is compromised C. For patients with a pulse oximeter reading of 94 to 96 percent D. Whenever there is more than one patient injured at the scene
B
While on scene with a trauma patient, your EMT partner asks you whether she should request ALS backup. The presence of what clinical finding would cause you to have your partner summon ALS? A. Abdominal tenderness B. Occluded airway C. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL D. Presence of pedal and carotid pulses
B
You are assessing a 25-year-old male who was struck in the head by a piece of heavy metal while at work and had a brief moment of unresponsiveness. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and complaining of a headache. Which body system, at a minimum, would it be necessary to examine during your secondary assessment? A. Respiratory B. Neurological C. Musculoskeletal D. Cardiovascular
B
You are assessing a 58-year-old male who was in a high-speed collision. He was not wearing his seatbelt and has a deep laceration on his forehead and neck pain. It is not clear whether there was a period of unconsciousness before your arrival on the scene. What is the patient's treatment priority, and which hospital should he be taken to? A. Low priority and nearest hospital 7 miles away B. High priority and trauma center 10 miles away C. High priority and nearest hospital 7 miles away D. Low priority and trauma center 10 miles away
B
You are at the scene of a patient with a significant mechanism of injury. After you complete your primary assessment, you find that the patient responds to painful stimuli with decorticate posturing. You also note blood in the hypopharynx, unequal chest wall motion, and a penetration injury to the leg with moderate bleeding. According to these findings, what would be your transport decision? A. No priority B. High priority C. Medium priority D. Low priority
B
You are conducting the secondary assessment on a trauma patient who has fallen off a ladder onto a concrete floor. When assessing the pelvis of this patient, you should determine the presence or absence of wounds, deformities, and: A. motor function. B. pain. C. distal circulation. D. paralysis.
B
You are transporting a patient who was injured as he was jogging along a road and was struck by a car. The patient has a GCS score of 10 with a respiratory rate of 30/min and a blood pressure of 78 systolic. The heart rate is 124/min. What is the patient's total revised trauma score? A. 8 B. 9 C. 11 D. 10
B
You are treating a patient who has chest pain and difficulty breathing. The secondary assessment should evaluate, at a minimum, the: A. neurological system. B. cardiovascular system. C. musculoskeletal system. D. gastrointestinal system.
B
You arrive on scene for a patient who is trapped in a car after an MVC. From the ambulance, you can see the male patient slumped over the steering wheel with blood coming from a large head laceration. There is also smoke billowing from under the hood. What should you do first? A. Open the airway. B. Complete a full scene size-up. C. Put pressure on the head laceration. D. Establish inline stabilization.
B
Your patient is a 54-year-old male with a history of diabetes who is currently unresponsive. You have initiated high-flow oxygen and started transport. His initial vitals were pulse 68, respirations 14, and B/P 102/70, with a BGL of 425 mg/dL. Given this, how often will you repeat the vital signs while transporting? A. Every 15 minutes B. Every 5 minutes C. Only if mental status changes D. Once during transport
B
Your patient was struck in the head by a golf ball while watching a golfing event. The patient experienced NO loss of consciousness. His airway is patent, breathing is regular, and the peripheral pulse is absent. The patient keeps asking you "What happened?" repeatedly. Given this, what would be your priority status determination? A. Medium priority B. High priority C. Low priority D. No priority
B
An airway that is open can also be called: A. obstructed. B. occluded. C. patent. D. positional.
C
During your assessment of the extremities of a critical trauma patient, which of the following should be of greatest concern? A. Inability to properly place a splint on the patient B. Gross angulation of a fracture C. Major bleeding D. Severe pain to the patient
C
During your secondary assessment of a patient who was injured while skiing, you remove her snow pants and find a puncture wound that is bleeding heavily. What critical intervention should you perform immediately? A. High flow oxygen via NRB B. Manual cervical immobilization C. Direct pressure on the bleed D. Attach the pulse oximeter
C
Forming a general impression of the patient includes which of the following? A. Determining the need and type of PPE for the call B. Assessing the vital signs C. Obtaining the chief complaint D. Ascertaining whether law enforcement is needed on scene
C
If you are computing a Revised Trauma Score and the patient's GCS score is 9 with a respiratory rate of 32/min, a blood pressure of 80 systolic, and a heart rate of 114, what is the patient's total revised trauma score? A. 10 B. 8 C. 9 D. 11
C
If you are computing a Revised Trauma Score, and the patient's GCS score is 14 with a respiratory rate of 30/min, his blood pressure is 102 systolic, and his heart rate is 104, what is the patient's total revised trauma score? A. 9 B. 12 C. 11 D. 10
C
Of the following, which would NOT be included in the assessment of vitals during a secondary assessment? A. Pupil assessment B. Skin characteristics C. Blood glucose level (BGL) assessment D. Capillary refill
C
Significant mechanisms of injury for an adult include: A. collisions in which airbags were deployed. B. a rear-end motor vehicle collision with a short extrication time. C. seatbelt injuries noted to the abdomen and shoulder areas. D. a fall greater than 6 feet.
C
The driver of a vehicle was ejected during a collision and sustained multiple injuries. Which of the following injuries requires immediate intervention? A. Open tibia/fibula fracture B. Abdominal evisceration C. Paradoxical chest movement D. Laceration with oozing blood
C
The mnemonic used to assess a patient's mental status is: A. PEARL. B. OPQRST. C. AVPU. D. DCAP-BTLS.
C
What is the first phase of patient assessment that the EMT should do at each and every patient encounter? A. Primary survey B. Rapid trauma assessment C. Scene size-up D. History and physical exam
C
What is the highest numerical value assigned to the best motor response when computing the GCS? A. 4 points B. 3 points C. 6 points D. 5 points
C
What is typically done during the scene size-up? A. Assessing for a carotid pulse B. Determining the patient's level of responsiveness C. Taking Standard Precautions D. Opening the airway
C
What would be considered a significant mechanism of injury for an infant? A. A laceration to a finger B. A low-impact motor vehicle collision (MVC) in which the infant was restrained in a car safety seat C. A fall greater than 10 feet D. Fussiness while trying to feed from a bottle
C
Which of the following adult patients should the EMT classify as critical solely on the basis of the mechanism of injury? A. A patient who was in a car crash that resulted in displacement of the bumper 12 inches toward the engine compartment B. A patient who slipped off a ladder and fell 8 feet onto grass C. A patient with a penetrating injury to the head after crashing a motorcycle D. A patient who was in an MVC in which the airbags deployed
C
Which of the following assessment findings would be considered a critical finding in an unresponsive medical patient? A. Tachypnea B. Tachycardia C. Facial drooping D. Equal pupils
C
Which of the following components is NOT used during the evaluation of the Revised Trauma Score? A. Motor, verbal, eye responses B. Respiratory rate C. Heart rate D. Systolic blood pressure
C
Which of the following is part of the patient assessment process? A. Post assessment B. Systematic assessment C. Secondary assessment D. Scene approach
C
Which of the following is recognized as one of the four main components or phases of patient assessment? A. Transport B. Rapid trauma assessment C. Primary assessment D. Vital signs
C
Which of the following should be treated during the primary assessment? A. Abdominal evisceration B. Femur fracture C. Open chest wound D. Moderate bleeding
C
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the secondary assessment for an unresponsive medical patient? A. It is the same as the secondary exam for a responsive medical patient. B. All secondary assessments are conducted in the same way. C. It is very similar to the secondary assessment for a trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury. D. It is very similar to the modified secondary assessment for a trauma patient with no significant mechanism of injury.
C
Which of the following steps is not part of the scene size-up? A. Evaluating the scene for safety hazards B. Establishing the number of patients C. Opening the airway of a patient who is in cardiac arrest D. Taking Standard Precautions
C
Why should the EMT follow an organized patient assessment format? A. To instill confidence in the patient B. Because this is how the ED does it C. To ensure that patient problems are found and managed appropriately D. Because it follows how the EMT will be writing the PCR
C
You are called to a scene for an unresponsive patient. As you approach the patient, it appears he is in cardiac arrest. Given this assumption, what assessment parameter should you determine FIRST? A. If the patient is breathing B. If the patient is conscious C. If a pulse is present D. If there is major external bleeding
C
You are treating a patient whose hand and arm were entrapped in a piece of equipment, causing a crushing injury. The patient's coworkers extricated him before your arrival, and there was no associated fall, unresponsiveness, or trauma elsewhere in the body. What type of immobilization will this patient likely receive? A. Immobilization to the head and neck B. Immobilization to the arm, body, and neck C. Immobilization to the arm and hand D. No immobilization of any body region
C
You arrive on scene and complete the scene size-up on an unresponsive patient. What should you consider doing next? A. Place your patient in the left lateral recumbent position. B. Collect a medical history from the family. C. Assess the patient's airway patency. D. Conduct a rapid secondary assessment.
C
You should administer oxygen via face mask or cannula to an adequately breathing patient with: A. a pulse oximeter reading of 95 percent and abdominal pain. B. a pulse oximeter reading of 94 percent and no other complaints. C. a pulse oximeter reading of 92 percent and chest discomfort. D. a pulse oximeter reading of 99 percent and mild nausea.
C
Your general impression of the patient should be formed from which of the following? A. What the neighbors tell you B. The patient's history C. Your observations D. The medical timeline
C
A respiratory rate that is too slow is called: A. apnea. B. hyperpnea. C. hypopnea. D. bradypnea.
D
All of the following assessment findings are indications for a 10-minute-or-less on-scene time and rapid transport, EXCEPT: A. suspected pneumothorax. B. uncontrolled external hemorrhage. C. altered mental status. D. puncture wound to the forearm with controlled bleeding.
D
An absence of breathing is called: A. hypoxia. B. hypoxemia. C. dyspnea. D. apnea.
D
During your assessment of a patient suspected of having a stroke, you find that you have to pinch the nail beds or the trapezius muscle in order for him to have a muscular response. This is what type of stimuli response in accordance with the AVPU scale? A. Patient is found unresponsive. B. Patient is alert. C. Patient responds to verbal stimuli. D. Patient responds to painful stimuli.
D
For which of the following patients should the EMT initiate their assessment and management by determining the status of the circulatory system? A. A patient with severe dyspnea B. A patient with an altered mental status C. A patient with an obvious brain injury from head trauma D. A patient suspected to be in cardiac arrest
D
How often should a reassessment be performed on a patient who presents stable? A. Every 5 minutes B. Every 10 minutes C. Every 20 minutes D. Every 15 minutes
D
If during your primary assessment, you note blood or secretions in the mouth and the patient is gurgling, what should you do NEXT? A. Proceed on to the evaluation of the patient's breathing. B. Proceed on to the evaluation of the patient's circulation. C. Do an abdominal thrust to clear the secretions. D. Immediately suction the airway and clear any secretions.
D
If the EMT is preparing to assess the characteristics of the skin, what location is the LEAST reliable location to use? A. Mucous membranes under the tongue B. Mucous membranes lining the eyelids C. Mucous membranes in the mouth D. At the base of the nail beds of the hands
D
If, during the assessment of an unresponsive medical patient, you find that the patient has no pulse, what should you do next? A. Listen to breath sounds. B. Apply oxygen via NRB. C. Assess the blood glucose level. D. Initiate chest compressions.
D
In completing a modified assessment of the lower extremities of a stable patient who fell, what should the EMT be sure to include? A. Computation of a revised trauma score B. Evaluation of the patient's SAMPLE history C. Assessment of the BGL D. Assessment of the PMS
D
Of the patients listed which would you consider to be most unstable? A. A 62-year-old male who says he has weakness in his right leg that comes and goes B. A 45-year-old female who thinks she is having an exercise-induced asthma attack but has clear breath sounds C. An alert 54-year-old male who has some chest tightness for the past hour D. An unconscious 29-year-old female who has very shallow breathing
D
What is the order in which you should perform a secondary assessment for a stable trauma patient who is responsive? A. Vitals, modified secondary assessment, and history B. Modified secondary assessment, history, and vitals C. History, vitals, and modified secondary assessment D. Modified secondary assessment, vitals, history
D
When assessing the chest, where should the EMT listen to breath sounds at bilaterally? A. At the posterior axillary line and the anterior axillary line. B. On at least two places on one side, and then two places on the other. C. At the midclavicular line below the second rib and the midscapular line below the fourth rib. D. Just below the second rib at the midclavicular line and just below the fourth rib at the midaxillary line.
D
When assessing the patient, paying attention to his mood, speech, posture, and motor activity would be MOST relevant to which body system? A. Musculoskeletal B. Respiratory C. Cardiovascular D. Neurological
D
When determining the mental status during the primary assessment, what is typically determined FIRST in the patient? A. Response to painful stimuli B. Response to noxious stimuli C. Response to verbal stimuli D. Spontaneously alert
D
When you report to your partner that the patient is a 46-year-old conscious male patient with leg pain, you have determined the: A. transport priority. B. secondary assessment. C. primary assessment. D. chief complaint.
D
Which of the following assessment findings would be considered critical during the primary assessment? A. Nasal flaring B. Heart rate of 112/min C. Bleeding from an amputated finger D. Sonorous breath sounds
D
Which of the following findings is consistent with a "stable" patient? A. Systolic blood pressure of 88 mmHg B. Respiratory rate of 28/min C. Fractured humerus D. GCS 15
D
Which of the following is LEAST directly related to checking the effectiveness of interventions you have performed on a trauma patient? A. Ensuring that bone or joint injuries are adequately immobilized B. Making sure that the patient's airway is still patent with the OPA inserted C. Checking whether the pressure dressing is adequately controlling the bleeding D. Obtaining a blood pressure and a pulse rate
D
Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform a reassessment of the patient? A. To adjust the emergency care as needed B. To detect any change in the patient's condition C. For identifying any missed injuries or conditions D. Transport time to the hospital of less than 10 minutes
D
Which of the following is considered inadequate breathing? A. Respiratory rate of 25 B. SpO2 of 95% C. Red skin D. Poor chest rise
D
Which of the following would LEAST likely be a significant mechanism of injury for a child? A. A 13-foot fall out of a tree B. A car crash at medium speed C. A vehicle collision in which the child was unrestrained D. A bicycle wreck in the front yard on the grass
D
Which one of the following injuries found during the modified physical examination would NOT cause the EMT to shift to performing a head-to-toe physical examination? A. A patient with a penetration injury to the upper leg that was previously hidden by clothing B. A patient who screams in pain when the EMT palpates the pelvis and finds crepitus C. A patient with more injuries than she is complaining of or reporting to the EMT D. A patient with shoulder pain after a fall onto an outstretched arm
D
While conducting reassessments of your unresponsive medical patient, which of the following merits MOST of your attention? A. Vital signs B. Effects of interventions C. Pulse rate and quality D. Airway patency
D
While obtaining the vitals during the secondary assessment, the EMT will assess the respirations. What would be included about the respirations during the primary vitals assessment? A. Pulse oximeter reading and skin characteristics B. Tidal volume and pulse oximeter reading C. Rate, pulse oximeter, and skin characteristics D. Rate and tidal volume
D
You are conducting a primary assessment on a patient who has suffered an emergency. Although the patient is not spontaneously conscious, you note that when you call his name loudly he will open his eyes and then respond. Given this, you determine that his mental status is: A. "A" for alert. B. "P" for painful. C. "U" for unresponsive. D. "V" for verbal.
D
You are conducting the primary assessment of a 52-year-old man who was in a car crash. When checking the airway, breathing, and circulation, you are looking for: A. cuts, bumps, and bruises to the extremities. B. the patient's medical history. C. the secondary assessment. D. immediate threats to life.
D
You are dispatched to the residence for a 34-year-old male patient complaining of severe abdominal pain for the past two hours. On arrival, the patient tells you he would rate the pain as a 9 on a 1 to 10 scale. What part of the OPQRST would this information apply to? A. P B. Q C. O D. S
D
You are examining an otherwise healthy 20-year-old male jogger who tripped on a curb and fell onto the sidewalk. You note a possible fracture to his right wrist, and he complains of slight pain in his elbow. He denies any loss of consciousness, and there is no external bleeding. What would be the priority of this patient? A. Critical B. High priority C. Unstable D. Stable
D
You have established manual in-line cervical-spine stabilization of an unconscious trauma patient. You may release manual stabilization: A. once a cervical collar has been applied. B. when the patient arrives at the hospital ED. C. when the patient is placed on the backboard. D. when immobilization has been completed with straps and the CID.
D
Your patient was injured in a construction accident and is complaining of pain to the pelvic region. Upon inspection, you note gross deformities to the pelvis. How should you continue to assess the pelvis? A. Palpate the pelvis for instability by placing your hands over the iliac crests. B. Auscultate the pelvis at the normal locations. C. Palpate the pelvis only by applying downward pressure over the symphysis pubis. D. Do not palpate the pelvis.
D
Your 64-year-old patient is complaining of chest pain radiating to his left jaw. What part of the OPQRST would this information apply to? A. Q B. P C. S D. R
D
