Micro 1
Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg? A. Transmitted by mosquitos B. There is no treatment C. Caused by filoviruses D. Transmitted by direct contact with body fluids E. Disruption of clotting factors
A. Transmitted by mosquitos
Each of the following conditions contribute to the growth of microorganisms in foods except A. a pH that is strongly alkaline. B. neutral or slightly acidic conditions. C. growth temperature near 37°C. D. plentiful organic matter. E. sufficient water content.
A. a pH that is strongly alkaline.
Salmonella are A. coliforms B. motile C. Gram positive rods D. lactose fermenters E. All of the choices are correct
B. motile
All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except A. lysozyme in saliva B. refined sugar C. fluoride D. antibodies in saliva E. genetics
B. refined sugar
Several pathogenic organisms are associated with foods. These include typhoid bacilli, amoebic cysts, and hepatitis viruses. All of these causative agents of disease may accumulate in A. beef B. shellfish, such as clams C. salami D. dairy products E. eggs
B. shellfish, such as clams
In an emergency, a person whose blood type is B may donate blood to a person whose blood A. type is O but not A B. type is AB but not O C. has been depleted of complement D. type is A but not AB E. type is A but not O
B. type is AB but not O
This is normally a disease of infants and so we inoculate infants in our country. However, because most of us never get a booster shot, we are seeing more cases of this disease in college students and adults. What is this disease? A. diphtheria B. whooping cough C. scarlet fever D. rheumatic fever E. shingles
B. whooping cough
Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result when which of the following couples have children? A.An Rh (+) man and an Rh (+) woman B.An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman C.An Rh (-) man and an Rh (+) woman D.An Rh (-) man and an Rh (-) woman E.All of the choices are correct
B.An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman
Which of the following are mechanical barriers in the body's first line of defense? A.Peristaltic removal of mucus entrapped pathogens B.Intact dermis and epidermis C.Normal microbiota like Lactobacillus lining the vaginal tract D.Defensins and lactoferrin E. lysozyme and peroxidase
B.Intact dermis and epidermis
Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) has the following characteristics except A. it replicates in lymphatic and blood vessel epithelial cells. B. purple lesions result from cell proliferation and blood vessel formation. C. its genome integrates into the host cell DNA. D. it is a typically latent infection. E. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma.
C. its genome integrates into the host cell DNA.
The natural resistance of egg white to spoilage is in part due to the presence of A. propionic acid. B. hydrogen sulfide. C. lysozyme. D. albumin. E. sulfur dioxide.
C. lysozyme.
Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except A. the addition of antibiotics to common household products. B. the overuse of antibiotics. C. multiple drug therapy. D. the ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed. E. the improper use of antibiotics.
C. multiple drug therapy.
Tetracycline is the drug of choice in treating most A. Gram (-) infections. B. viral infections. C. rickettsial infections. D. Gram (+) bacterial infections. E. dermatophytotic fungal infections.
C. rickettsial infections.
Which bacteria ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle milk? A. Leuconostoc mesenteroides B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Streptococcus thermophiles, Lactococcus, Lactobacillus D. Propionibacterium E. Spirulina
C. Streptococcus thermophiles, Lactococcus, Lactobacillus
The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of the A. degree of chemical pollution in water B. effectiveness of fluoroidation in the preparation of drinking water C. amount of biological pollution in water D. number of hepatitis viruses in underground springs E. B-cell receptors of dendritic cells
C. amount of biological pollution in water
E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except: A. it has a reservoir of cattle intestines B. it causes a bloody diarrhea C. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals D. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure
C. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
What brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system? A. Macrophages B. Cranium C. Blood-brain barrier D. Meninges E. Microglia
C. Blood-brain barrier
The products of yeast fermentation in breads are A. Ethanol and water B. Lactic acid and water C. Ethanol and carbon dioxide D. Carbon dioxide and water E. Lactic acid and carbon dioxide
C. Ethanol and carbon dioxide
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a A. Bacteria B. Protozoan C. Virus D. Helminth E. All of the choices are correct
C. Virus
The causative organism of whooping cough is: A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Staphyloccus aureus
C. Bordetella pertussis
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is: A. Melanoma B. Leukemia C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Hodgkin's lymphoma E. Myeloma
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
A. Salivary glands B. Pancreas C. Large intestine D. Liver E. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
Symptoms of mono
C. Sore throat with pus coating, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly
All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except: A. Associated with severe pain, bleeding, abscessed gums, and necrosis B. Most destructive of the periodontal diseases C. Very communicable D. Due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease E. Involves Treponema spirochete and other anaerobic bacteria
C. Very communicable
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a: A. Bacteria B. Protozoan C. Virus D. Helminth E. All of the choices are correct
C. Virus
Bacteria which are suppurative or purulent and pus-forming are: A. pyrogenic B. paraplegic C. pyogenic D. pandemic E. parenteric
C. pyogenic
The cyclic bout of fever and chills in malaria are caused by: A. liver cell lysis B. white blood cell lysis C. red blood cell lysis D. neurological involvement E. None of the choices is correct
C. red blood cell lysis
An interesting feature of polymyxin B is that this antibiotic A. Can lead to anaphylaxis reactions B. Is especially suited to acid-fast bacteria C. Is quite toxic and is only used topically D. Is effective against fungi E. Contains four benzene rings and several carbohydrate side-groups
C. Is quite toxic and is only used topically
Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. Antibodies to toxin B. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine C. Adjuvant D. Gamma globulin E. Booster
C. Adjuvant
Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones? A. Ebola B. Marburg C. Dengue fever D. Yellow fever E. Lassa fever
C. Dengue fever
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Capsules and antiphagocytic factor B. Slime layer and adherence to substrate C. Streptolysin O and hydrolysis of phospholipids D. Hemolysins and damage to red blood cells E. Leukocidins and damage to white blood cells
C. Streptolysin O and hydrolysis of phospholipids
The incubation period for rabies may depend upon A. the type of arthropod that bit the individual B. the amount of virus introduced to the bite wound C. the type of animal that bit the individual D. the immune status of the individual E. the strain of virus introduced to the bite wound
B. the amount of virus introduced to the bite wound
_____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. A. Monocytes, Basophils B. B cells, T cells C. Basophils, T cells D. T cells, B cells E. B cells, neutrophils
B. B cells, T cells
Drug susceptibility testing: A. Determines the patient's response to various antimicrobials B. Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials C. Determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobials D. Determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient E. None of the choices is correct.
B. Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials
Identify how vast numbers of microorganisms are being genetically characterized without culturing them in the laboratory today. A. Western blot analysis B. Metagenomic sampling C. Gas chromatography D. Anammox reactions E. Column chromatography
B. Metagenomic sampling
Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A. Brucellosis B. Plague C. Malaria D. Chickungunya E. All of the choices are correct
B. Plague
Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Fusion inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct
B. Protease inhibitors
A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the: A. MIC B. Therapeutic index (TI) C. Kirby-Bauer D. Antibiogram E. E-test
B. Therapeutic index (TI)
Documented transmission of HIV involves A. Mosquitoes B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood or blood products C. Respiratory droplets D. Contaminated food E. All of the choices are correct
B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood or blood products
The cyclic transformation of sulfur is important because sulfur is an essential component of A. nucleic acids such as DNA. B. amino acids such as cysteine. C. steroids such as cholesterol. D. enzymes such as phosphatase.
B. amino acids such as cysteine.
The retrovirus that leads to AIDS A. uses reverse transcriptase to convert DNA to RNA. B. contains RNA in its genome. C. multiplies only within the brain cells of the body. D. has no envelope. E. is a member of the herpesviridae.
B. contains RNA in its genome.
Vinegar is commonly produced by A. fermentation of barley with yeast. B. converting alcohol via biofilm bacteria. C. uniting hydrochloric acid and ammonium hydroxide. D. mixing carbohydrates with silage. E. removing the liquid of sauerkraut.
B. converting alcohol via biofilm bacteria.
Escherichia coli is a good indicator of water pollution because this bacterium A. is resistant to most antibiotics. B. is commonly found in the human intestine. C. grows only in high-salt environments. D. undergoes recombinations readily. E. it is motile and able to easily migrate and contaminate new water sources.
B. is commonly found in the human intestine.
Small towns and municipalities collect sewage into large ponds called ___________________, where the sewage is left undisturbed for up to three months to allow natural digestion of the organic matter to occur. A. sludge tanks B. lagoons C. cesspools D. sewer systems E. septic tanks
B. lagoons
The malaria attack coincides with A. entry of the parasites to the liver. B. the release of parasites from infected red blood cells. C. the bite of the mosquito. D. a cytokine storm. E. destruction of the spleen in the body.
B. the release of parasites from infected red blood cells.
Norovirus
B. A Carnival Lines cruise to Ensenada, Mexico
There are fewer antifungal, anti-protozoan and anti-helminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths A. are parasites found inside human cells. B. Because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria C. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult. D. do not cause many human infections. E. are not affected by antimicrobials.
C. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult.
Which type of unusual prokaryote causes many types of fevers such as Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Rickettsia
Gram (-) cell wall
Rigid outer boundary
Clostridium tetani
Roadside IED (improvised explosive device) in Falluja, Iraq
Discovered cells under a microscope
Robert Hooke
Discovered the causative agent of anthrax
Robert Koch
Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis?
Robert Koch
Rose gardener's disease
Sporothrix schenkii
Cloned the first DNA using plasmids
Stanley Cohen
For which bacterial genus is mannitol salt agar selective?
Staphylococcus
Toxic shock syndrome
Staphylococcus aureus
What is the causative agent of Toxic Shock Syndrome?
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of this bacterium?
Staphylococcus aureus
carbuncle
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?
a solid medium
Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
Which of the following may be learned by performing a gram stain?
b and c both
Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth?
bacteria and fungi
The primary decomposers of dead organic matter are microorganisms such as multicellular parasites and rickettsiae. protozoal cysts and hepatitis A viruses. chlamydiae and viroids. bacteria and fungi.
bacteria and fungi.
When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called
bioremediation
What is the organic base that is found in ATP?
adenine
In which of the following is oxygen the final electron acceptor?
aerobic respiration
zoonotic infection with its primary reservoir
birds, pigs=influenza squirrels=tularemia cat= toxoplasmosis cattle, poultry, rodent, reptile intestinal biota= salmonella mice=hantavirus
Cyanide will cause rapid death in humans because it
blocks cytochrome c oxidase.
A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is
blood agar.
The Rickettsial diseases, Epidemic Typhus, is transmitted via
body lice
Hematopoetic stem cell
bone marrow cell able to give rise to all blood cell types
A peptide bond
both a & b
Enzymes are ____.
both a & b
When assigning a scientific name to an organism
both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
Which type of plating technique allows you to enumerate the number of organisms in your culture?
both pour and spread plating
A media is designed that allows only Staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is
both selective and differential.
This microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background:
bright-field
A plasmid that can replicate in E. coli and Pseudomonas is most likely:
broad host range plasmid
If you denature a protein, you have
broken the hydrogen bonds within
Plague
buboes
Temperate phages can do all of the following EXCEPT:
bud from their host cells
lyme disease
bulls eye rash
The sequence of steps used in the preparation of water for drinking is A. aeration, fluoridation, and filtration. B. precipitation, coagulation, and chlorination. C. sedimentation, filtration, and chlorination. D. filtration, ozone/chlorination, discharge E. precipitation, flocculation, and sedimentation.
C. sedimentation, filtration, and chlorination.
Several pathogenic organisms are associated with foods including vibrios, which as causative agents of disease may accumulate in A. eggs. B. beef. C. shellfish, such as clams. D. milk. E. dairy products.
C. shellfish, such as clams.
Dried activated sludge from secondary sewage treatment can be used A. to cultivate fungi and protozoa. B. in aquaculture to grow fish. C. to fertilize agricultural land. D. to cultivate bacteria in the laboratory. E. to control mosquito populations in small freshwater ponds and lakes.
C. to fertilize agricultural land.
Polyclonal antibodies in serum contain A. At least three different kinds of antigens B. A mixture of vaccines C. A mixture of antibodies D. At least three different kinds of cells
C. A mixture of antibodies
Carriers and reservoirs are both considered A. Contributors to period of acme in the disease B. Zoonoses C. Capable of transmitting infectious disease D. Opportunistic in the disease process E. Direct methods for disease transmission
C. Capable of transmitting infectious disease
Which one of the following is not a product of the lysosome? A. Perioxidase enzyme B. Nitric Acid (NO) C. Cytokines D. Superoxide anion (O2-) E. Peptidoglycan-degrading enzyme
C. Cytokines
pathogenicity island
Stretch of DNA in bacteria encoding virulence factors; appears to have been acquired from other bacteria
Enzymes
Studies done by Buchner showed that ground-up yeast cells were able to convert sugar to alcohol. The components of the mixture that were responsible for the chemical transformation were
Which type of phosphorylation does not require a membrane? A. All types of phosphorylation require a membrane B. Photophosphorylation C. Oxidative phosphorylation D. Substrate-level phosphorylation E. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Substrate-level phosphorylation
Chemically defined medium
Supports microbial growth and composed of exact quantities of pure chemicals; generally used for specific experiments when nutrients must be precisely controlled
Oxidative Phosphorylation
Synthesis of ATP using energy given off during the electron transport phase of respiration
In a sequencing rxn, the dATP was left out of the tube. What would be the result of this error?
Synthesis would never continue past the first A
Xenobiotic
Synthetic compound not found in nature
What chemical circulating in the blood causes fever? A. Histamine B. Perforin C. Pyrogen D. Pyogen E. Lactoferrin
C. Pyrogen
Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following diseases except A. strep throat B. scarlet fever C. pneumococcal pneumonia D. glomerulitis E. All of the choices are correct
C. pneumococcal pneumonia
Bulk removal of waste from a eukaryotic cell is accomplished via exocytosis
TRUE
Genus (genera)
Taxonomic category of related organisms, usually containing several species; the first name of an organism in the Binomial System of Nomenclature
Pandemic
The 1918 flu outbreak which infected 500 million people across the world
False
The signal sequence is used by bacteria for chemotaxis
Which is incorrect about warts? A. Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites B. Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet C. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal D. Are frequently cancerous E. Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)
D. Are frequently cancerous
All of the following will kill Giardia except A. boiling. B. ozone. C. iodine. D. chlorine in typical drinking water. E. All of the methods listed will kill Giardia.
D. chlorine in typical drinking water.
M protein
The protein in the cell walls of Group A streptococci that is associated with virulence
Which of the following occurs when the sequence of amino acids is changed?
The protein is changed to a different protein.
repressor
The protein that when bound to the operator site prevents transcription
The polymerase chain rxn generates a fragment of a distinct size even when an intact chromosome is used as a template. What determines the boundaries of the amplified fragment?
The sites to which the primers anneal
Exotoxin
The soluble, poisonous protein substance secreted by a microorganism or released upon lysis
Reservoir of infection
The source of a pathogen
Tolerance
The specific unresponsiveness of the adaptive immune system reflecting its ability to ignore any given molecule such as normal cellular protein
Prodromal
The stage consisting of early, vague symptoms indicating the onset of disease
Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all of the following except A. external ear infection. B. serious infection in lung tissues of cystic fibrosis patients. C. severe nosocomial infection in burn patients. D. diarrheal illness. E. skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges.
D. diarrheal illness.
spikes (attachment proteins)
The structures on the outside of the virion that bind to host cell receptors
Ecology
The study of interactions between microbes and their environment and how those interactions affect the earth.
Symptom
The subjective effect of a disease experience by the patient such as pain and nausea
Penicillin-binding proteins, PBP
The target of β-lactam antimicrobial medications and heavy metals
Horizontal transmission
The transfer of a pathogen from on person to another through contact, ingestion of food or water or via a living agent such as an insect
Oral-fecal transmission
The transmission of organisms colonizing the intestine by ingestion of fecally contaminated material
Why is cyanide harmless to some bacteria?
They lack cytochrome c oxidase.
Which of the following statements is correct about gram-negative bacteria? Penicillins are the best antibiotics to use against them On a cell-to-cell basis, they possess more DNA than do cells of any taxonomically higher organisms They possess an outer membrane containing toxic lipopolysaccharides. Their chromosomes are composed of DNA tightly wrapped around large amounts of histone proteins Their cell walls are sensitive to lysozyme.
They possess an outer membrane containing toxic lipopolysaccharides.
Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract A. can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. B. is the causative agent in common yeast infections. C. is indicative of underlying infection. D. is protective. E. can contribute to STDs.
D. is protective.
When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes A. gangrene B. hypotension C. swelling of the legs D. jaundice E. shock
D. jaundice
Which of the molecular methods of assessing similarity gives the crudest approximation of relatedness?
DNA base composition
Which of the following is incorrect?
DNA cannot self replicate
Intrinsic, innate resistance
The resistance of an organism to an antimicrobial due to the inherent characteristics of that type of organism
separate clearly two objects that are very close together
The resolving power of a microscope is described as the ability of the microscope to
Diapedesis is the A. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. B. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets. C. production of only red blood cells. D. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
Virulence factors include all the following except A. capsules. B. exoenzymes. C. flagella. D. exotoxins. E. ribosomes.
E. ribosomes.
Water sample A has a BOD of 157 ppm, while sample B has a BOD of 62 ppm. On this basis, it may be concluded that A. sample B has less salt in it. B. sample B is a marine water sample while sample A is fresh water sample. C. the pH of sample A is higher. D. The BOD of sample A indicates a larger capacity for anaerobic fermentation. E. sample B has a lower microbial population than sample A.
E. sample B has a lower microbial population than sample A.
All the following apply to coliform organisms except A. they are Gram-negative. B. spore formation does not take place in the organism. C. they produce acid and gas from the carbohydrate glucose. D. E. coli and species of Enterobacter are included in the group. E. they are facultative anaerobes which form spores in the presence of O2.
E. they are facultative anaerobes which form spores in the presence of O2.
Salmonella enterica
E. A new pet turtle
The intentional injection of an attenuated virus into a person will lead to A. Artificially acquired passive immunity B. Naturally acquired passive immunity C. Naturally acquired active immunity D. Eventual disease E. Artificially acquired active immunity
E. Artificially acquired active immunity
The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.
False
The procedure for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope
False
The signal sequence is used by bacteria for chemotaxis
False
soft chancre
Haemophilus ducreyi
Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom.
True
One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments.
True
Scanning tunneling and atomic force microscopes are used to image the detailed structure of biological molecules.
True
Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
True
T The 70S ribosomes of Eukarya form part of the evidence for the endosymbiont theory
True
The bending of light rays as they pass form one medium to another is called refraction.
True
The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured.
True
The term sterile means free of all life forms.
True
Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms.
True
Which of the following is mismatched?
Trypanosomes--dysentery
Hybridize
Two different nucleic acids uniting their complementary sites
His experimentation led to the explanation of heat-stabile and heat-labile organisms and the discovery of endospores.
Tyndall
Beta (β) hemolysis
Type of bacterial morphology characterized by a clear zone around a colony grown on blood agar
The air of a hospital room
Ultraviolet light is valuable for reducing the microbial population in
acute infection
Illness characterized by signs and symptoms that develop quickly but last a relatively short time
Morbidity
Illness; most often expressed as the rate of illness in a given population at risk
Arthus phenomenon
Immune complex hypersensitivity; "farmers lung", serum sickness
Naturally acquired active immunity
Immunity provided by illness
Acquired immunity
Immunity that develops after birth
Measles
Immunization involves MMR vaccine
Spoilage
Undesirable biochemical changes in food
Cytomegalovirus
Unprotected sex
The "breath test" for Helicobacter pylori infection determines which of the following?
Urease
Hives
Urticaria; an allergic skin reaction characterized by the formation of itchy red swellings
Dendritic cells
Use TLRs, phagocytosis, and pinocytosis to gather material to present antigens
There's no oxygen present, and it cannot respire anaerobically, It lacks the ability to respire (i.e. no electron transport chain), Conditions (pH, oxygen concentrations, etc.) have changed to such a point that respiration is no longer possible. (All of the above are possible)
Why would a cell respire rather than ferment?
Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?
Kingdom
Complete the following exchange reaction: NaOH + HCl --->
NaCl + H2O
Site of protein synthesis
Metachromatic granules
A 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use entered the local health clinic with complaints of a dry persistent cough, fever, malaise, and anorexia. Over the preceding 4 weeks, he had lost 15 pounds and experienced chills and sweats. A chest radiograph revealed patchy infiltrates throughout the lung fields. Because the patient had a nonproductive cough, sputum was induced and submitted for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial cultures, as well as examination for Pneumocystis organisms. Blood cultures and serologic tests for HIV infection were performed. The patient was found to be HIV positive. The results of all cultures were negative after 2 days of incubation.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis- Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, and rifampin for 2 months followed by 4-6 months of alternative combination drugs
A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is Answer
Mycobacterium.
All of the following genera are obligate intracellular parasites EXCEPT:
Mycoplasma
They are subject to lysis in hypotonic conditions
Mycoplasmas are bacteria that lack cell walls. On the basis of this structural feature, which of the statements below is true about mycoplasmas
The reactions of fermentation function to produce _____ molecules for use in glycolysis.
NAD
Which of the following would be least likely to produce an acquired immune deficiency? A. Radiation treatment B. Stress C. Bacterial infection D. Malnutrition Pregnancy
NOT D
The most significant cells in graft rejection are: A. Suppressor T cells B. Both cytotoxic T cells AND natural killer (NK) cells C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Helper T cells E. Natural killer (NK) cells
NOT c
Complete the following reaction: NaOH + HCL ---> Answer
NaCl + H2O
Legionnaires' disease
Name for 1976 outbreak of L. pneumophila disease
A 17-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with a 4-day history of fever, chills, malaise, sore throat, skin rash, and polyarthralgia. She reported being sexually active and a 5-week history of a profuse yellowish/greenish vaginal discharge, which was untreated. Upon presentation, she had erythematous maculopapular skin rash over her forearm, thigh, and ankle, and her metacarpophalangeal joint, wrist, knee, ankle, and midtarsal joints were acutely inflamed. She had an elevated leukocyte count and sedimentation rate.
Neisseria gonorrhea -Recommended cephalosporin antibiotics and condoms
Meningococcus
Neisseria meningitidis
Ensnared pathogens are trapped in DNA, with degradative enzymes and peptides
Neutrophil extracellular trap
Has granules with lysosomes
Neutrophils
Pasteurization
Process of heating food or other substances under controlled conditions to kill pathogens and reduce the total number of microorganisms without damaging the substance
Disinfection
Process of reducing or eliminating pathogenic microorganisms or viruses in or on a material so that they are no longer a hazard
Competitive inhibition
Process where a drug molecule is similar to substrate and competes for enzyme action
What is the function of the glyoxylate cycle?
Produces intermediates to replenish the compounds for the KREB'S CYCLE cycle
Soy sauce
Product of mold-fermentation
Plasmodium
Multinucleated diploid slime mold form
leprosy
Mycobacterium leprae
This disease is often diagnosed by the observance of "tubercules" on chest X-rays
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Nystatin is the recommended drug for: A. Candida albicans infections of the oral cavity. B. viral infections of the skin. C. malaria and tuberculosis. D. infections of the intestine due to Gram-negative bacteria. E. cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) fungal infection.
NOT e
Ribosomes
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
Renin
Promotes protein coagulation in fermenting milk
acne
Propionibacterium acnes
Glycocalyx
Prevents phagocytosis; attachment
kirby-bauer test
Procedure for determining the antibiotic susceptibility pattern of a bacterial species
capsid
Protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of a virus
chaperone
Protein that helps other proteins fold properly
Phenol coefficient
Rating scheme for antibacterial agents Ratio of dilution factors used to compare an agent against phenol under constant conditions - 5 = 5x as effective as phenol
The name given to the -COOH group of an amino acid
carboxylic acid group
Conducive to the production or promotion of dental decay.
cariogenic
WHat is the function of a vector?
carries cloned DNA, allowing it to replicate in cells
Which of the following is not a steroid?
chlorophyll
All algae have:
chlorophyll a
GI tract - via contaminated water ingestion
cholera
In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the sample.
colony, cell
Nitrite
combines with hemoglobin to reduce O2 capacity of blood
Magnetosomes are
composed of magnetic iron oxide particles.
Enzymes that are regularly found in a cell are termed
constitutive enzymes
The the membranes of eukaryotes and mycoplasma contain ergosterol contain sterols for "strength" contain peptidoglycan perform endocytosis are fixed static structures
contain sterols for "strength"
Protists
contain the protozoa and algae
An apoenzyme
contains the active site.
Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except
contaminated air
nitrogen fixation
conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH4+)
Denitrification
conversion of nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas (N2)
Carbon will typically form a _______ bond(s) with other atoms.
covalent
This is the type of bonding characterized by sharing of electrons
covalent
What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain?
crystal violet, Gram's iodine, alcohol, safranin
The presence of thylakoids, phycocyanin, gas inclusions and cysts would be associated with
cyanobacteria.
Interferon
cytokine capable of inducing cells to resist viral replication
Guanine always bonds to _______________ in a DNA molecule.
cytosine
The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is
dark-field.
The process of removing the amino group from amino acids is referred to as ___.
deamination
This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve that is a harsh environment with cell numbers decreasing.
death phase
The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
decomposers
The organism in which a parasite develops into its adult or sexually mature stage
definitive host
All of the following pertain to glycolysis except it
degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O.
Identify the process by which water is removed so that larger organic molecules are formed from smaller molecules.
dehydration synthesis
A frame shift is caused by ______________ mutations.
deletion and insertion
Moist heat kills microorganisms by
denaturation
The The action of heat or chemicals on proteins whose function depends upon an unaltered tertiary state
denaturation
If a protein's shape is changed, it has been ___.
denatured
Heat is useful in the destruction of bacteria because heat
denatures enzymes by altering their tertiary structures
Some bacteria adhere to the surfaces of teeth via their glycocalyces and entrap other oral bacteria. This layer of polysaccharide and entrapped bacterial cells is called
dental plaque
Leukocidins
destroy white blood cells
Plate Count
determines the number of viable cells in a culture
A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on
determining evolutionary relatedness.
The the Gram stain technique is valuable in distinguishing
different types of bacteria
Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
differential
Culture media that allows you to separate even closely related groups of microorganisms.
differential media
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called
diffusion
Corynebacterium diptheriae causes the disease commonly called
diphtheria
This type of cellular morphology is described as pairs of spherical cells
diplococci
A particle with a negative charge and low mass is a/an:
electron
Most biological energy is involved with exchanges of the:
electron
This microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification:
electron
This microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image:
electron
During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
electron transport
In the electron microscope, a stream of __ is employed as a source of illumination instead of visible light.
electrons
putrefaction
end result of microbial succession
A chemical reaction that absorbs or requires the intake of energy is a/an ___ reaction.
endergonic
Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
endocytosis
The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called
endocytosis.
A minute, highly durable body which develops in some bacteria that is very resistant to the environment
endospore
Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure? Answer
endospore
Survival mechanism in dry environments
endospores
The necessity for elaborate sterilization procedures in hospitals and canneries is due to
endospores
Infantile botulism is associated with the ingestion of
endospores in honey
Rhizobia
endosymbiotic nodule nitrogen-fixer
A bacterial toxin that specifically targets intestinal mucous membrane cells.
enterotoxin
Studies done by Buchner showed that ground-up yeast cells were able to convert sugar to alcohol. The components of the mixture that were responsible for the chemical transformation were A. nucleic acid molecules B. enzymes C. lipids D. carbohydrates E. mitochondria
enzymes
An increase in eosinophil concentration in the bloodstream, often in response to helminth infection.
eosinophilia
A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of
epidemiology
The the chemical counterpart of the autoclave uses
ethylene oxide with an inert gas
A A scientist discovers a new organism in run-off from the Rio Tinto River in Spain (the river runs through a copper mine and the water has a pH of 2.0). On basic microscopic examination and after conducting a few simple experiments, she finds that this single-celled species is heterotrophic, has no cell wall, uses a flagellum for motion, and contains a variety of internal structures that are bound by plasma membranes. Given this information, this new species is most likely a ______ cell in the _____ subcategory eukaryotic; protozoan eukaryotic; fungus archaebacterial; fungus eukaryotic; algae bacterial; eubacterial
eukaryotic and protozoan
What type of reaction is demonstrated as A + BC --> AC + B or AB + CD --> AD + CB?
exchange
primary virulence factor
exfoliative toxin- SSS keratin-digesting enzyme- tinea pedis capsule- menigococcal meningitis erythrogenic toxin- scarlet fever tetanospasmin- lockjaw (tetnus)
Enzymes that can function at boiling water temperatures or other harsh conditions would be termed
extremozymes.
The movement of a substance from a high concentration to a low concentration requiring a carrier molecule but no ATP is
facilitated diffusion
The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called
facilitated diffusion.
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an
facultative anaerobe.
You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing equally throughout the broth. You conclude the culture must be
facultative anaerobe.
An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32° C is called a/an
facultative psychrophile.
The short appendages on some gram negative bacteria that function in adhering to surfaces are
fimbriae
__________these structures are also referred to as adhesions because they allow adherence to host cells.
fimbriae
The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called
fimbriae.
IgM
first class of antibodies produced during the primary response to an antigen
Rhizobia
fix N2 in roots of legumes
Cells are caused to adhere to slides by the process called:
fixation
Serum plasma
fluid portion of blood remaining after blood clots
Which of the following microscopes would be appropriately used in a hospital Tuberculosis wards?
fluorescent microscope
The function of bacterial endospores is
for protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.
Endospores
form in response to adverse conditions and germinate whenever external conditions become favorable
A culture of E. coli is irradiated w/ UV light. The UV light specifically:
forms covalent bonds between thymine on the same strand of DNA
Cholesterol is:
found within the membranes of cells that do not possess a cell wall.
The part of an organic compound that has a predictable reaction or solubility is called the ______ group.
functional
Members of this group have chitinous cell walls:
fungi
This group helps produce many of the foods we eat:
fungi
All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
gel electrophoresis is used to determine the serotype of an organism
Eucarya A. couple transcription with translation in the cytoplasm B. have a more complex internal structure than Archaea or Bacteria AND have a membrane around the DNA. C. have a membrane around the DNA D. have a more complex internal structure that Archaea or Bacteria E. consist of only multicellular organisms
have a more complex internal structure than Archaea or Bacteria AND have a membrane around the DNA.
All phages must have the ability to:
have their nucleic acid enter host cell/ "" replicate in host cell
The following terms are associated with endospores except:
heat sensitive
The most common and energetically useful hexose is:
glucose
The only carbohydrate capable of directly producing energy by cellular respiration is _____.
glucose
When amino acids are deaminated, they can be used as a source of
glucose
Sucrose is composed of ____.
glucose and frutose
All triglycerides must contain esters of fatty acids and:
glycerol
Which of the following is not a type of carbohydrate?
glycerol
Fats are best described as being composed of ____.
glycerol and saturated fatty acids
The the energy-yielding breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid; no molecular oxygen is consumed in the degradation
glycolysis
The type of bonds that links the monosaccharides in maltose, starch or glycogen molecules
glycosidic
Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of
gram negative bacteria
An endotoxin is associated with some
gram negative cell walls
A procaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is
gram positive
oll-like receptors, TLR
group of pattern recognition receptors located on the surface of cells and within endosomes
Facultative bacteria are those that
grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an
growth factor
The purine bases in nucleic acids include
guanine and adenine.
The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is
hanging drop.
Influenza vaccines must be changed yearly b/c the AA sequence of the viral proteins change gradually over time. Based on this info, which is the most logical conclusion? The flu virus:
has an RNA genome
Eucarya
have a more complex internal structure than Archaea or Bacteria AND have a membrane around the DNA.
All of the following are helminths except
helminths
Multicellular parasites that have a complex life cycle and may cause diseases in man
helminths
Inflammation and necrosis of the liver, often the result of viral infection.
hepatitis
Barophiles are microorganisms able to tolerate
high atmospheric pressure.
A A research lab is trying to produce new antimicrobial drugs. They have developed a drug that prevents mRNA from exiting the nucleus to enter the cytoplasm. T
his drug would be highly toxic for human beings, but may be useful as a topical antibiotic skin cream. . The top layer of skin cells is dead anyway so it would not matter if this drug damaged those cells. It could NOT be taken internally, though, by human beings.
Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
humans using yeast to make beer and wine
What type of bond is found between the bases in the DNA molecule?
hydrogen
The two strands of DNA are held together by:
hydrogen bonding
As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.
hydrogen ions
In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer?
hydrogen protons
Large organic molecules are formed by what type of reaction?
hydrolysis
Which of the following would break large molecules into smaller components with the readdition of water?
hydrolysis
Lysozyme, an enzyme found in tears, provides a natural defense against bacteria by
hydrolyzing peptidoglycan in cell walls.
Which term refers to the "water loving" nature of the phospholipid head?
hydrophylic
Arthus reaction
hypersensitivity reaction cause by immune complexes and neutrophils
Dead zone
hypoxic result of agricultural run-off
Artificially acquired immunity
immunity acquired through artificial means such as vaccination or administration of immune globulin
Humoral immunity
immunity due to B cells and an antibody response
This is the study of the systems for disease resistance
immunology
Oxidation of proteins is achieved most readily in a hot air oven. with metal solutions. by moist heat. by moist heat under pressure. in the presence of organics.
in hot air oven
Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea?
in hot spring
In eukaryotes, glycolysis takes place
in the cytoplasm
In eukaryotes, the Krebs cycle takes place
in the mitocondria
Fungi
include molds and yeasts, derive their energy from degrading organic materials
Bacteria
include the agents responsible for stomach ulcers and plague, are prokaryotes, impart distinctive flavors in foods such as yogurt and cheese, are the most metabolically diverse group
All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except
inclusions
Fever
increase in internal body temperature to 37.8ºC or higher
Enzymes that are produced only when substrate is present are termed
induced enzymes
The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except
infection
Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism:
macronutrient
Titer
measure of the concentration of a substances in solution
Liquid media containing heat-sensitive components would best be sterilized by lyophilization. microwaves. freezing. ultraviolet (UV) light at 500nm. membrane filtration.
membrane filtration
_________are the type of microbes that prefer the moderate temperature range such as associated with the human body.
mesophile
Most of the human pathogens are
mesophiles
An enfolding of the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane that increases membrane surface area and provides an area of attachment for the DNA during replication
mesosome
What part of the prokaryotic cell assists in separating the DNA during replication?
mesosomes
All of the breaking-down reactions/process of the cells of an organism
metabolism
All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called
metabolism.
Which type of Archaea converts CO2 and H2 into methane?
methanogens
Pasteur and Tyndall experiments proved
microbes are transmitted via dust particles
A a sterile item is free of
microbes, endospores, and viruses
Repair mechanisms that occur during DNA synthesis are:
mismatch repair/ proofreading DNA polymerase
Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botulinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a(n): A. antitoxin. B. toxemia. C. hemolysin. D. index case. E. pandemic.
not d
Both RNA and DNA are known as which of the following types(s) of organic compounds?
nucleic acids
The cyclic transformation of nitrogen is important because nitrogen is an essential component of steroids and lipids. carbohydrates and lipids. nucleic acids and amino acids. lipids and cholesterol.
nucleic acids and amino acids.
DNA and RNA are composed of basic units called
nucleotide
Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?
objective lens
Exergonic reactions
occur during aerobic cellular respiration.
A pure culture contains only
one species of microorganism.
Allograft
organ or tissue transplanted between genetically nonidentical members of the same species
This is present in eukaryotic but not in prokaryotic cells
organelles
Acidophile
organism that thrives in a relatively acid environment
microbial mat
organized by quorum sensing
Treating foods with large amounts of salt draws the water out of foods by A. active transport B. reverse osmosis C. osmosis D. lyophilization E. efflux
osmosis
Which of the following transport systems does not require a carrier molecule?
osmosis
To become stable, an atom will always attempt to fill it's _________________.
outer energy level of electrons
The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is
outside of the cell
The loss of a hydrogen and its electron is referred to as _______.
oxidation
Synthesis of ATP using energy given off during the electron transport phase of respiration
oxidative phosphorylation
Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called
oxidoreductases.
A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with
oxygen
During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is
oxygen
In anaerobic respiration, all of the following can serve as the final electron acceptor except
oxygen
Autoclaving
sterilization by heating steam in a jacket and subsequent entrance of the steam into a sterilization chamber, where materials and substances to be sterilized are placed
Which type of plating technique may be used for isolation only?
streak
Plain soap is quite effective in controlling spread of microorganisms because it is very effective at the mechanical removal of microorganisms bacteriostatic bactericidal virucidal an effective alkylating agent
very effective at the mechanical removal of microorganisms
Which of the following methods of enumerating cells is the only one to detect live cells?
viable plate count
Which of the following methods of enumerating cells is the only one to exclusively detect live cells? coulter counter turbidty flow cytometer viable plate count direct microscopic count
viable plate count
Important components of coenzymes are
vitamins
Chlorhexidine is a biguanide used to
wash hands and clean wounds superficially
An acid and base will react to form a salt and:
water
In the phototrophic production of energy, the oxygen originates from A. hydrogen peroxide B. water C. glucose D. carbon-dioxide E. chlorophyll
water
What is used to return chlorophyll to the ground state in PS2?
water
When food has been salted
water osmoses out of microorganisms causing them to shrivel
Acid-fast organisms belonging to the genus Mycobacteium resist decolorization by acid-alcohol because of the high concentration of ___ in their cell walls.
waxes
Halophile
would grow on selective media containing relatively high levels of salt
Glycolysis
yields pyruvate for use in the TCA cycle, requires an "investment" of 2 ATPs, begins with a glucose molecule, results in a net gain of 2 ATPs
Glycogen, a major nutrient reserve of animals, is an example of a ____.
polysaccharide
All of the following are involved in DNA replication except:
polysome
Constant region
portion of an antibody molecule that does not vary in amino acid sequences among molecules of the same immunoglobulin class
In a _______ plate technique, the sample is added directly to liquid agar prior to hardening.
pour
Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface?
pour plate
Pure culture technique utilizing dilute suspensions of microorganisms which are added to melted and cooled agar.
pour plate method
Antiserum
preparation of serum containing protective antibodies
The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be
protein synthesis would stop
Enzymes are
proteins that function as catalysts
What are the subatomic particles on which the atomic number is based?
protons
Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental?
protozoa
Skin - parenteral via bite trauma
rabies
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab benchtop, on the shelf of a 37° C incubator and on the shelf of a 50° C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37° C and 50° C, slight growth out on the benchtop, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?
psychrophile
All the bacterial cells that result from the replication of a single original bacterial organism are said to be a pure culture stationary culture population mutant culture lab culture
pure culture
The cleaving of the bonds within the fatty acids by microbial action is referred to as
rancidity
The sugar that composes part of the ATP molecule is ___.
ribose
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common? cilia that contain microtubules a membrane-bound nucleus a cell wall made of cellulose ribosomes linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
ribosomes
An acid + base reaction forms what 2 end products?
salt and water
A halophile would grow best in
salt lakes
Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called
saprobes
Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it?
scanning electron
Protozoa reproduce asexually by:
schizogony
In which level of protein structure do you include the intrachain bonding that occurs between the α and β-pleated sheets?
secondary
The α helix and β-pleated sheet are examples of
secondary structure
Culture media designed to favor the growth of specific microorganisms.
selective media
A A soil sample is added to a culture medium that has been designed to promote the growth of the genus Pseudomonas while inhibiting the growth of fungi. This test uses a
selective medium
the resolving power of a microscope is described as the ability of the microscope to
separate clearly two objects that are very close together
the "O157:H7" of E. coli O157:H7 refers to the
serotype
The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called
sex pilli
Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would
shrivel
Endospore formation begins in which phase of the growth curve?
stationary phase
The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the
stationary phase
This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve in which endospores begin to form.
stationary phase
This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve that is described as reproduction rate = death rate
stationary phase
Which functions in protein synthesis?
RNA
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by
Corepressor and repressor binding to operator
A 48-year-old Chinese national developed a sore throat while on a week-long trade mission in rural Haiti. Two days after he returned home to Chongquing, he visited a local hospital with complaints of a sore throat and difficulties in swallowing. He was treated with oral antibiotics but returned two days later with chills, sweating, difficulty swallowing and breathing, nausea, and vomiting. He had diminished breath sounds in the left lung, and radiographs confirmed pulmonary infiltrates, as well as enlargement of the epiglottis. Laryngoscopy revealed yellow exudates on the tonsils, posterior pharynx, and soft palate. He was admitted to the intensive care unit, treated with antibiotics and steroids but over the next 4 days became hypotensive with a low-grade fever. By the eighth day of illness, a chest radiograph showed infiltrates in the right and left lung bases, and a white exudate and a pseudomembrane was observed over the supraglottic structures.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae - Antitoxin, penicillin or erythromycin, and a vaccine
The bond between amino acids is a/an ____.
Covalent Bond
Maternal antibodies
Cross the placenta
Which one of the following is not a role for bioremediation?
Curing infectious diseases
Which is mismatched
Cyanobacteria - filamentous, gliding, thermophilic bacteria
Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes?
tetrad
If the GC content of two organisms is 70%, which of the following is TRUE?
the AT content is 30%
Fatty acids can be metabolized by entering
the TCA cycle.
Ultraviolet light is valuable for reducing the microbial population in
the air of a hospital room
Feedback inhibition
the inhibitor of the biochemical pathway that is typically the final product of the biochemical pathway.
All of the following are correct about prokaryotes except
they have organelles
Which statement is not a characteristic of biofilms?
they involve bacteria only
Which of the following statements regarding protists is FALSE?
they often act as vectors in disease transmission
All of the following characteristics apply to the prokaryotes except
they reproduce by mitosis
Microaerophile
they survive in environments where O2 concentration is relatively low but are inhibited by high O2 levels
Mesophile
this group has most of the the pathogens as they grow at body temperature
Obligate aerobe
this group requires oxygen for metabolism, just like humans
In DNA , adenine always bonds to the which complementary base?
thymine
The Rickettsial diseases, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, is transmitted via
tick bites
Why is oil of immersion often used when viewing specimens under the microscope?
to increase resolution
Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls.
true
Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease.
true
Hot carbol fuchsin is the primary dye in the acid fast stain.
true
If you observe rod shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been gram stained, you can assume that their cell walls contain endotoxin.
true
The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years before eukaryotes appeared.
true
The prokaryotic cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions
true
Skin - penetration via hair follicle
tuberculosis
Which of the following genera would you most likely find growing in acidic runoff from a coal mine?
Acidithiobacillus
A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of
Generalized transduction
Tinea pedis
Generally known as athlete's foot
restriction fragments
Generated when DNA is cut with restriction enzymes
Radiation
Germicidal UV and ionizing gammaradiation - Causes DNA damage within microorganism
This compound is produced in the Calvin cycle as a precursor for carbohydrate production.
Glyceraldehydes 3-phosphate
You are studying an obligate anaerobe. Which one of the following pathways can you be assured is occurring?
Glycolysis
pyruvate
Glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway both produce
CD4 receptor
Glycoprotein receptor of helper T cells recognized by human immunodeficiency virus, HIV
Neisseria gonorrhea is the causative agent of
Gonorrhea
Filtration
HEPA filters
Air
HEPA filters are used to filter which one of the following?
Highest Resistance
Level of resistance to antimicrobial control for prions and endospores
Moderate Resistance
Level of resistance to antimicrobial control for protozoan cyst, fungi
Which is used for cloning eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes?
Reverse transcriptase
Spiral bacteria that are flexible and can wiggle their bodies like a snake due to axial filaments are
spirochetes
grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
Facultative bacteria are those that
excision repair
Mechanism of DNA repair in which a fragment of single-stranded DNA containing mismatched bases is removed and replaced
two-component regulatory system
Mechanism of gene regulation utilizing a sensor and a response regulator
Sexual reproduction in the eukaryotes is accomplished with
Meiosis
Cause of complement mediated cell lysis
Membrane attack complex
a direct flame
Of the following, the most efficient method for sterilization of a bacteriological transfer loop is
Streptococci: alpha hemolytic
Olive green color of partly destroyed red blood cells
Re-emerging diseases
Once controlled by preventative public health measures, they are now on the rise
Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _______ from initiating transcription
RNA polymerase
monocistronic
RNA transcript that carries one gene
Propionibacterium acnes is the causative agent of
Acne
Lumpy jaw
Actinomyces israelii
Trophozoite
Active, motile protozoan feeding form
Acquired resistance
The development of antimicrobial resistances through spontaneous mutation or acquisition of new genetic information
Enzymes are specific for only one reaction, generally in one direction
Which of the following statements is the most correct for enzyme reactions?
Pasteurization
Which of the following will not result in sterilization?
sick people give rise to microorganisms in their body
Which of the following would be consistent with the idea of spontaneous generation?
The hydrolysis of ATP
Which one of the following does not involve a phosphorylation reaction?
Chlorine
Which one of the following elements would be classified as a halogen
Curing infectious diseases
Which one of the following is not a role for bioremediation?
Viruses to bacteria to protozoa
Which one of the following sequences exhibits increasing size?
Capsules and Fimbriae
Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other, or to other surfaces?
Substrate-level phosphorylation
Which type of phosphorylation does not require a membrane?
Which of the following methods of measuring population growth is a viable cell count?
standard plate count using a dilution series
A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an anaerobe.
False
A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
False
All microorganisms are parasites.
False
Spheroplasts are formed when gram positive microbes do not form a cell wall during reproduction while growing in an osmotically friendly environment.
False
The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
One helix strand which runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand that runs from the 3' to 5' direction
Neisseria gonorrhea is the causative agent of
Opthalmia neonatorum
Rickettsias
Ribosomes
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Severe gamma radiation exposure
Prevents dessication and inhibits phagocytosis by host cells
Spirochetes
Which one of the following does not involve a phosphorylation reaction?
The hydrolysis of ATP
Fomite
The inanimate objects such as books, tools or towels that can act as transmitters of pathogenic microorganism or viruses
At the end of the Gram stain, gram positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells.
True
Flagella
- permit eukaryotic motility - Contain components of the electron transport chain for ATP generation - Contain components of the electron transport chain for ATP generation - are used for chemotaxis
Franciscella tularensis
-rabbit fever. -has a relatively low mortality rate. -persists, proliferates within phagocytes
Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens.
True
Developed the vaccine for small pox
...
Fermentation
...
How many electrons are in the outer energy level of an electrically neutral atom of oxygen?
...
How many energy levels (shells) are in an electrically neutral sodium atom?
...
If the Gram's Iodine step were omitted in the Gram's procedure, what color would you expect Gram positive bacteria and Gram negative bacteria to stain?
...
In Photosystem 1 (PS1),
...
NAD functions
...
Nutrients are
...
Oxygen is produced as an end product here.
...
The following are parts of the scientific method except:
...
The polysaccharide that assists in plaque formation by increasing bacterial adhesiveness to the teeth.
...
The shape of most protein molecules may be described as _____.
...
The type of bacteria that retain their initial stain and do not decolorize after washing with a lipid solvent such as alcohol.
...
This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve in which many involution forms are present
...
Two net ATPs are produced here.
...
What type of identification technique utilizes a piece of known DNA that may combine with only similar DNA and is a very specific identification method?
...
Which contains no histones?
...
Which of the following is used to produce ATP and hydrogen that will reduce CO2?
...
Which of the following least belongs?
...
Which phylum is mismatched?
...
Which type of microscope produces the greatest magnification?
...
selective medium
A soil sample is added to a culture medium that has been designed to promote the growth of the genus Pseudomonas while inhibiting the growth of fungi. This test uses a
Dimorphic
A species with both yeast and mycelial stages
Agar
a polysaccharide found in seaweed used to prepare solid culture media
What is the name given to any negatively charged ion?
anion
The methanogens, produces of methane gas, require environments that
are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
Which of the following uses the Embend Meyerhoff pathway only?
fermentation
Which type of metabolic process is used for cheese production?
fermentation
The term chemotroph refers to an organism that
gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
All of the following pertain to photosynthesis except
it occurs only in members of the kingdom Plantae.
All of the following are correct about a slime layer except
it plays a role in cell motility
Helper T cell
lymphocyte type programmed to activate B cells and macrophages as well as assist other components of adaptive immunity
Storage from or inorganic phosphates
plasmid
The DNA in a cell that is not part of the chromosome is a
plasmid
The extra-chromosomal DNA in a cell that codes for ancillary functions
plasmid
The following belong together except:
plasmid
Which cell structure is an important agent in modern genetic engineering techniques?
plasmids
Which is mismatched?
plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism
Syphilis
- Involves the nervous system in the final stage -Is caused by a spirochete - can lead to Hutchinson's teeth in the congential form
Plasma Membranes
- are involved in group translocation - are involved in group translocation
Chromosomes
- are involved in group translocation - replication is followed by binary fission - are closed circular single molecules
Components c of cell wall
-Composed of PEPTIDOGLYCAN (molds outer structure) -2 types: ----GRAM-POSITIVE (thick layer of peptidoglycan; have unique polyalcohols called teichoic acids; stained purple) ----GRAM-NEGATIVE (thin layer of peptidoglycan; bilayer membrane has phospholipids, proteins, and lipopolysaccharide; stained pink)
Rabies
- is a typical zoonosis -symptoms include hydrophobia
Listeria monocytogenes
- is primarily a food-borne infection -migrates from cell to cell via actin "rockets" -is psychrophilic
Neisseria meningitidis
- may involve the medulla of the brain - transmitted by close contact - distinguished by petechiae -initially colonize the nasopharynx
Medium Resistance
- protozoan cyst, fungi
Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
-CD4+ T cell count < 200/µl B -Presence of P. jiroveci, Mycobacterium sp., T. gondii, CMV, Kaposi sarcom, or B cell lymphoma
Acute retroviral syndrome
-High persistent plasma viremia -Viral 'flulike' presentation
Replication
-Involves DNA polymerase activity -Requires DNA ligase to seal DNA fragments -Produces Okazaki fragments -is a DNA-dependent DNA synthesis process.
Translation
-Involves a transfer of amino acids to an elongating chain -Involves a polysome -Begins with a start codon
Transcription
-Is a DNA-dependent RNA synthesis process -Requires a promoter sequence -RNA synthesized by primase
Clinical Latency
-Steady viral RNA set point -ARC includes fever, weight loss, diarrhea, fatigue
IgA
-accumulates in body secretions. -provides resistance in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts.
viral envelope
-acquired by "budding" -similar to the host membrane except with viral components -fuses with the cell membrane in replication -flexible membrane composed of protein and lipid
Viruses
-are obligate intracellular parasites -have a protein coat that surrounds the genetic informatio
Epstein-Barr virus
-causes Burkitt's lymphoma -is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. -it infects the respiratory epithelium.
viral genome
-consists of nucleic acid -exists in segments in some viruses -may be either in DNA or RNA but not both -must enter the host cytoplasm for replication to occur -is affected by base analogs in viral inhibition
Protists
-contain the protozoa and algae -derive their energy from degrading organic materials
Chancroid
-diagnosis depends on isolation of Gram-negative rods from pustules - is caused by a member of the genus Haemophilus - is endemic in undeveloped countries and tropical climates
Hi Resistance
-endospore -prion
Lowest Resistance
-enveloped viruses -veg bacteria
Fungi
-impart distinctive flavors in foods such as yogurt and cheese -include molds and yeasts
Bacteria
-include the agents responsible for stomach ulcers and plague -are prokaryotes -are the most metabolically diverse group
IgM
-indicates a very recent infection.
viral capsid
-induces the body to produce antibodies -the viral capsid contains functional projections called spikes -is a protective covering for the genome -may contain enzymes to assist penetration -is responsible for symmetry of virus -is subdivided to capsomeres in some viruses
IgE
-is a cell surface receptor on the mast cell. -involved in allergic reactions.
Chlamydial urethritis
-is a form of nongonococcal urethritis - produces possible pneumonia in newborns -The pathogen is the most common of all notifiable bacterial diseases
IgG
-is a major circulating antibody. -is also called gamma globulin. -is a maternal antibody that crosses the placenta. -booster injections of a vaccine raise the level of this antibody.
Yersinia pestis
-is associated with a digestive tract biofilm. -is caused by a Gram-negative rod that shows bipolar staining. -may develop into septicemic and pneumonic stages.
Gonorrhea
-is due to a Gram-negative diplococcus
Yellow fever
-it is accompanied by substantial jaundice. -transmitted by the bites of mosquitoes. -vaccines are available for immunization.
viral capsomere
-number is characteristic for a particular virus -protein subunit of the capside
Polio
-prevention requires immunization with Salk or Sabin vaccine -is caused by one of the smallest virions
GI tract - via tainted meat product ingestion
. mad cow diseas
Which one of the following symptoms is not associated with HIV infection? A. headache, tiredness B. skin rash. C. enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and groin D. painful ulcers of the gastrointestinal tract E. low-grade fever that remains for weeks or months at a time
. painful ulcers of the gastrointestinal tract
Chloramphenicol
. Effective against Gram-positive bacteria, Gram-negative bacteria, rickettsiae, and fungi
A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has
...
A clear association between contamination and infection from maternity wards with regards to child birth fever was demonstrated by:
...
Anabolic reactions are most commonly associated with
...
Anaerobic respiration
...
As a result of bacterial oxidative phosphorylation, which of the following is/are true?
...
Which one of the following is true for immune complex hypersensitivity? A. Complement is involved as a mediator B. There is usually a skin reaction C. The origin of hypersensitivity is the T lymphocytes D. It is manifested within days to weeks E. Dendritic cells are involved
... A. Complement is involved as a mediator
All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2µm except
0.1 µm.
Which of Koch's postulates states that a particular microbe should be present in every case of that disease?
1
Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other, or to other surfaces? 1. capsules 2. endospores 3. fimbriae 4. plasmids 5. flagella
1 and 3
Which of the following is a hydrogen isotope with a mass of 3 ?
1 proton, 2 neutrons, 1 electron
5 methods of antisepsis
1. Alcohol 2. Lodophors 3. Chlorhexidine 4. Phenolic compounds 5. Quaternary ammonium compounds
11 Methods of sterilization (5 IMPORTANT)
1. Moist heat (IMPORTANT) 2. Dry heat (IMPORTANT) 3. Filtration (IMPORTANT) 4. Radiation (IMPORTANT) 5. Ethylene oxide gas (IMPORTANT) 6. Formaldehyde gas 7. Hydrogen peroxide gas 8. Plasma gas 9. Chlorine dioxide gas 10. Paracetic acid 11. Glutaraldehyde
The smallest protein consists of about _____ amino acid units.
100
If an atom had the atomic number 14 and atomic mass of 27, how many (protons, neutrons, and electrons) would it contain?
14, 13, 14
The sequence of which ribosomal genes are most commonly used for establishing phylogenic relatedness?
16S
Which of the following is an example of an evolutionary chronometer?
16S ribosomal RNA sequence
If chlorine has the atomic mass/weight of 35 and the atomic number of 17, what is the number of neutrons in an atom of chlorine?
18
The fermentation of 1 glucose yields a NET ATP production of
2
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated
2 ATP
Case-fatality rate
28 patients died out of 47 diagnosed for a percentage of 60%
Which of the following does a dideoxynucleotide lack?
3'OH
A A urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms is considered indicative of infection. A urine sample containing 5,000 bacteria, with a generation time of 30 minutes, sits for 3 hours before finally being assayed. How many bacteria will then be present within the sample?
320000
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, how many ATP are generated?
38 ATP
Quaternary ammonium compounds
4 organic groups linked to nitrogen Attacks membranes of organisms
What is the atomic mass/weight of an atom with 23 protons, 24 neutrons, and 25 electrons?
47
If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4-cycles of PCR you will have ______ fragments
48
Using the DNA sequence strand shown here as a template, what will be the sequence of the RNA transcript? --> 5' GCGTTAACGTAGGC 3' --> 3' CGCAATTGCATCCG 5'
5' GCGUUAACGUAGGC 3'
If a culture starts out with 1 cell and after 4 hours there are 64 cells, how many generations have occurred?
6
What is the molecular weight of C2H4O2?
60
A food product label lists the following information. Carbohydrate 5g., Protein 3g., fat 4g. per serving. How many calories per serving would this product contain?
68
At pH ____, the concentration of acid equals base.
7
A total of how many electrons are needed to fill the outer shell of most atoms?
8
If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?
95X
Transmitted via fomite
A Staphylococcus aureus infection spread from one wrestler to another via a floor mat
spheres in packs of eight
A bacterial arrangement called a sarcina has which of the following morphological shapes?
Fermentation
A bacterium that uses glucose as an energy source has been isolated from an anaerobic environment. After the growth of the bacterium, the pH of the growth medium is measured and found to be very acidic. When analyzed, the medium is found to have a high concentration of lactic acid. This bacterium is most likely metabolizing by a process known as
Antisepsis
A chemical agent that can safely be used externally on living tissue to destroy microorganisms or to inhibit their growth?
Histamine
A chemical mediator of inflammation
Antibiotic
A chemical produced by certain molds and bacteria that kills or inhibits the growth of other organisms
Antimicrobial drug
A chemical used to treat microbial infections; also called antimicrobial
enterics
A common name for members of the family Enterobacteriaceae
Perforin
A cytotoxin released by TC cells, it forms pores in cell membranes
Aquifer
A deep groundwater source.
distinguishes colonies of one type of bacterium from those of another type
A differential medium is one that
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
A disease of the fetus or newborn cause by transplacental passage of maternal antibodies against the baby's red blood cells, resulting in red cell destruction; usually anti-Rhesus (Rh) antibodies are involved and the disease is called Rh disease; also called erythroblastosis fetalis
Bacterial conjugation involves
A donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus
Thermophiles
A hot tub (approx. 104ºF or 40ºC) would most likely contain
Zoonotic
A hunter is infected with rabies virus from skinning a fox
Protein
A laboratory technician has two pure isolated biological samples he is working with: one of a virus, and one of a viroid. Unfortunately, the labels came off the tubes when they were placed in the refrigerator. The technician was sure he could distinguish between the two samples by analyzing for the presence of a single type of molecule. What type of molecule would he be looking for to differentiate between the two samples?
Therapeutic index
A measure of the relative toxicity of a medication, defined as the ratio of minimum toxic dose to minimum effective dose
Second-line drug
A medication designated as second choice because it is toxic or less effective
Multilocus Sequence Typing
A method of distinguishing strains that relies on determining the nucleotide sequence of select DNA regions
All of the below
A microbe is discovered growing beside a deep sea thermal vent near the Galapagos Islands. When researchers bring a sample up to the surface and try to grow it in a lab at room temperature in a normal incubator, they are unsuccessful. Why?
auxotroph
A microorganism requiring an organic growth factor
Agar plate
A petri dish containing a solidified culture medium
aflatoxin
A poisonous substance made by Aspergillus flavus
Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
A procedure using a fluorescence-labeled probe to detect specific nucleotide sequences within intact cells attached to a microscopic slide
Estuary
A region where the river meets the sea
This drug would be highly toxic for human beings, but may be useful as a topical antibiotic skin cream. . The top layer of skin cells is dead anyway so it would not matter if this drug damaged those cells. It could NOT be taken internally, though, by human beings.
A research lab is trying to produce new antimicrobial drugs. They have developed a drug that prevents mRNA from exiting the nucleus to enter the cytoplasm. This drug
Concentrate the sample with membrane filtration then place the filter on a MacConkey agar plate (which contains lactose and a pH indicator that turns pink when acid by-products are present).
A sanitation engineer in Portland, Maine sends a water sample to your lab, and wants to know if there are lactose-fermenting microbes in the sample (their presence would indicate contamination with human waste). How might you determine if these microbes are present or not from this mixed-microbe specimen?
eukaryotic and protozoan
A scientist discovers a new organism in run-off from the Rio Tinto River in Spain (the river runs through a copper mine and the water has a pH of 2.0). On basic microscopic examination and after conducting a few simple experiments, she finds that this single-celled species is heterotrophic, has no cell wall, uses a flagellum for motion, and contains a variety of internal structures that are bound by plasma membranes. Given this information, this new species is most likely a ______ cell in the _____ subcategory
Hapten
A small molecule that lacks immunogenicity
is not considered sterile
A substance that has been pasteurized
Efflux pump
A transporter that moves molecules out of the cell
generalized transduction
A type of horizontal gene transfer occuring when a phage carries a random piece of bacterial DNA acquired when a packaging error occurs during the assembly of phage particles
320,000
A urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms is considered indicative of infection. A urine sample containing 5,000 bacteria, with a generation time of 30 minutes, sits for 3 hours before finally being assayed. How many bacteria will then be present within the sample?
lytic infection
A viral infection causing the host cell to lyse
What is the difference between a viroid and a prion?
A viroid is infectious RNA and a prion is infectious protein
bacteriophage
A virus that infects bacteria; often abbreviated to phage
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Leukemia D. Myeloma E. Melanoma
A. Kaposi's sarcoma
Which of the following is a viral hemorrhagic fever? A. Yellow fever B. Cat Scratch fever C. Rabbit fever D. Q fever E. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A. Yellow fever
One virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes is the ability to: A. grow inside host cells B. release lactic acid C. form endospores D. lyse RBCs E. produce abundant, branching hyphae
A. grow inside host cells
Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis? A. Most common causative organism is Entamoeba histolytica B. Involves infections of both the brain and meninges C. Modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water D. Most common causative organism is Naegleria fowleri E. Treatment for Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective
A. Most common causative organism is Entamoeba histolytica
Citrus fruits generally escape bacterial contamination because A. bacteria do not favor acidic conditions B. citrus fruits are high in salt C. citrus fruits are warm-temperature fruits D. U.V. radiation in sunlight kills off bacteria on their surface E. bacteria cannot form spores within fruits
A. bacteria do not favor acidic conditions
Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called ________, or __________, a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain. A. Antigenic drift, antigenic shift B. Antigenic shift, antigenic drift C. Antigenic drift, antigenic drift D. Antigen resistance, antigen cooperation E. None of these
A. Antigenic drift, antigenic shift
When the center of a tubercle breaks down into a ________________, it gradually heals by calcification that forms a tuberculous cavity. A. Caseous necrosis B. Tertiary C. Miliary tubercle D. Granuloma E. Primary lesion
A. Caseous necrosis
The paroxysms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are: A. Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis B. Fever, swollen lymph nodes and joint pain C. Bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea and weight loss D. Urinary frequency and pain and vaginal discharge E. Sore throat, low grade fever and swollen lymph nodes
A. Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of the choices are correct.
A. Clostridium botulinum
Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through: A. Parenteral entry B. Fomites C. Droplets D. Ingestion E. Casual contact
A. Parenteral entry
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except: A. Pneumococcal pneumonia B. Otitis media C. Glomerulonephritis D. Scarlet fever E. Rheumatic fever
A. Pneumococcal pneumonia
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is: A. Water and electrolyte replacement B. Antimicrobials C. Antitoxin D. Surgery E. None of the choices is correct
A. Water and electrolyte replacement
Which is the first step in wastewater purification? A. Sedimentation B. Chlorination C. Storage D. Bioremediation or BOD removal E. Aeration and settling
A. Sedimentation
Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenkii? A. causes superficial cutaneous infection B. is dimorphic C. often transmitted by soil-contaminated thorns D. lives in the soil E. causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels
A. causes superficial cutaneous infection
Helper T cells: A. Activate B cells, macrophages, and assist other T cells B. Suppress immune reactions C. Secrete antibodies D. Directly destroy target cells E. Function in allergic reactions
A. Activate B cells, macrophages, and assist other T cells
Autoimmunity is typically due to: A. Autoantibodies and T cells B. IgE and mast cells C. Transfusion reaction D. A deficiency in T-cell development E. Graft rejection
A. Autoantibodies and T cells
Class switching: A. describes a B cell which expresses a novel antibody class B. is a direct result of affinity maturation C. is the T cell decision to interact with a different antigen D. is T cell differentiation into a helper, natural killer, cytotoxic, or effector cell E. All of the choices are correct
A. describes a B cell which expresses a novel antibody class
The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the A. respiratory system. B. urinary system. C. skin. D. genital system. E. gastrointestinal system.
A. respiratory system.
What is a drawback to inactivated vaccines? A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time B. They have to be kept refrigerated C. They have a short shelf life D. All of the above are correct
A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time
All of the following would be required for a positive fluorescent antibody (FA) test for syphilis except A. Complement from a guinea pig B. Syphilis spirochetes in a patient sample scraped from a lesion C. Anti-Treponema antibodies D. Fluroescein-labeled antiglobulin antibodies E. A microscopic slide
A. Complement from a guinea pig
The theory called clonal selection says A. Exposure to an antigen activates those T- and B-cells with receptors recognizing specific epitopes on the antigen B. B cells provide resistance through direct cell-to-cell contact with, and lysis of, infected or otherwise abnormal cells C. T cells are involved in the process by which antibodies are produced against epitopes D. The activation of T cells produces antibodies that recognize epitopes
A. Exposure to an antigen activates those T- and B-cells with receptors recognizing specific epitopes on the antigen
Which one of the following is not a direct method of disease transmission A. Fomites B. Particles of mucus expelled from the respiratory tract C. Contact with feces D. Hand-shaking E. Intercourse
A. Fomites
Which one of the following is not associated with Streptococcus pyogenes? A. Food poisoning B. Glomerulonephritis C. Scarlet fever D. Necrotizing fasciitis E. Puerperal fever
A. Food poisoning
Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract? A. IgG B. Lysozyme C. IgA D. Mucus secretions E. Flushing action of urine
A. IgG
An example of opportunistic organisms are those that A. Inhabit the lungs and cause disease when body defenses are suppressed B. Cause typhoid fever C. Inhabit the intestine but are incapable of causing disease D. Can exist as cysts E. Require an intermediary host
A. Inhabit the lungs and cause disease when body defenses are suppressed
Herpes simplex virus-1
A. Kissing
There are a number of organisms that can cause milk to sour and curdle. Which of the following organism(s) is/are selected for this characteristic and used in the process to make cheese? A. Lactobacillus cremoris or L. lactis B. E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes C. Clostridium, Alcaligenes and Klebsiella D. Bacillus, Proteus and Micrococcus
A. Lactobacillus cremoris or L. lactis
Consider the following case. At a ranch, a horse is infected with Eastern equine encephalitis virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a ranch hand. The horse is slaughtered and its meat is consumed by the ranch hands at a cookout. Which was the vector? A. Mosquito B. Ranch hands at the cookout C. Bitten ranch hand D. Virus E. Horse
A. Mosquito
An acute, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is: A. Systemic anaphylaxis B. T-cell mediated C. Delayed D. Antibody-mediated E. Atopic
A. Systemic anaphylaxis
All arboviral infections involve A. arthropod vectors. B. congenital infection. C. rodent vectors. D. birds as the primary reservoir. E. All of the choices are correct.
A. arthropod vectors.
Amebiasis symptoms include A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B. fever, swollen lymph notes, and joint pain. C. chills, fever, and sweating. D. increased urinary frequency with pain, and vaginal discharge. E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.
A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.
Transplanted tissue is rejected by the body if the A. immune system interprets the tissue to be nonself B. grafted tissue is an autograft C. donor and recipient of the transplant are identical twins D. blood types of donor and recipient are the same E. serum sickness is uncontrolled
A. immune system interprets the tissue to be nonself
All of the following characteristics apply to Salmonella serotypes except A. they can cause skin infections. B. they are Gram-negative rods. C. they can be transmitted by food. D. they commonly infect chickens and turkeys. E. they are able to survive for months in water and soil.
A. they can cause skin infections.
The prospects for developing a vaccine for the common cold are not promising because A. many different viruses can cause the common cold B. there would be virtually no candidates for such a vaccine C. of the antigenic shift phenomenon D. funds for this type of research are not available E. viruses cannot be cultivated in tissue culture medium
A. many different viruses can cause the common cold
Dermatophytosis refers to fungal disease A. of the hair, skin, and nails. B. that resists antibiotic treatment. C. which is spread by arthropods. D. that accompanies predisposing factors. E. that spreads to the internal organs.
A. of the hair, skin, and nails.
E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all of the following except it A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals. B. is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated undercooked food, especially hamburger. C. causes a bloody diarrhea. D. has a reservoir of cattle intestines. E. may go on to cause, in some cases, hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure'
A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
A pH of 3 means that a solution is:
Acidic
In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate
ADP
Which of the following is the energy carrier compound for living organisms?
ATP
All of the following are exoenzymes except
ATP synthase.
A ribosome binds to the following mRNA @ the site indicated by the dark box. At which codon will translation likely begin? 5' *GCCGGAAUGCUGCUGGC
AUG
Pathogenicity
Ability to produce disease
Lysozyme
Abundant egg white component that degrades peptidoglycan
The compound that enters the KREB'S CYCLE cycle from glycosis is
Acetyl co-A
Gene transfer in plants often uses a plasmid isolated from the bacterium
Agrobacterium
HEPA filters are used to filter which one of the following?
Air
Developed the first oral polio vaccine
Albert Sabin
Discovered the first antibiotic, penicillin
Alexander Fleming
Which of the following diseases probably involves microbial infection?
All choices are correct
A A microbe is discovered growing beside a deep sea thermal vent near the Galapagos Islands. When researchers bring a sample up to the surface and try to grow it in a lab at room temperature in a normal incubator, they are unsuccessful. Why? A. All of the above B. It is possible the microbe is a strict anaerobe C. A barophilic organism might not grow since the pressure is not the same at sea-level as it is on the ocean D. Salt concentrations might be different in the media the researchers are attempting to use and the salt water the microbe is used to living in, causing osmotic pressure differences that the microbe cannot tolerate. E. It may be a psychrophile - enzymes in the cells are probably outside of their normal operating range at room temperature and therefore nonfunctional
All of the above
Which group of organisms is studied in the field of microbiology?
All of the above are studied
Of the following which is not true of viruses?
All of the above are true
nalysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
All of the choices are correct
the process is exergonic
All of the following apply to the process of anabolism except
Chickenpox
All of the following are examples of new emerging infectious diseases except
They reproduce by mitosis
All of the following characteristics apply to the prokaryotes except
Pure Culture
All the bacterial cells that result from the replication of a single original bacterial organism are said to be a
Which one of the following statements might be used describe a transgenic organism?
All the choices might describe a transgenic organism
Chicken pox
Also known as varicella
Organisms called parasites are
Always harmful to their host
mechanical vector
An animal that transports an infectious agent but is not infected by it.
Antitoxin
An antibody preparation protective against a given toxin
Allergen
An antigen causing an allergy
Broad-spectrum antimicrobial
An antimicrobial able to inhibit or kill a wide range of microorganisms, often including both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
Narrow-spectrum antimicrobial
An antimicrobial medication that inhibits or kills a limited range of bacteria
Commensalism
An association that is beneficial only to the microbe and the host is unaffected
Plasma cell
An effector B cell, fully differentiated to produce and secrete large amounts of antibody
Bioaugmentation
An example is the activated sludge process
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
An example of a two-component regulatory system is the lactose operon, which is controlled by a repressor and an activator
Endemic
An example would be malaria in Nigeria
Nosocomial infection
An infection acquired during hospitalization
Sanitized
An item treated to reduce the microbial population to a level that meets acceptable health standards
Obligate Aerobe
An organism that cannot tolerate the absence of oxygen in the environment is a/an
Which of the following genera are known to fix Nitrogen?
Anabaena, Azotobacter, Rhizobium
MPN test
Analysis of H2O samples by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests to estimate the number of coliform numbers in the water
Myasthenia gravis
Antibodies react with acetylcholine receptors
Graves disease
Antibodies react with receptors on the surface of the thyroid glan
SLE
Antibodies reacting to an individual's own nuclear components cause dysfunction
Artificial passive immunity
Antibody molecules injected into person
Opsonin
Antibody or complement protein that encourages phagocytosis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Antibody reacting with antigen in joints
Antiserum
Antibody-containing serum
Epitopes
Antigenic determinants
Superantigens are A. Antigens that bind simultaneously to MHCII protein and the T cell receptor on T helper cells B. Extraordinarily large antigens on B cells C. None of the choices is correct D. Haptens + carrier proteins E. Endotoxins
Antigens that bind simultaneously to MHCII protein and the T cell receptor on T helper cells
Allicin
Antimicrobial chemical in garlic
He is sometimes called the "Father of Bacteriology and Protozoology."
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
mutagen
Any agent that increases the frequency at which DNA is altered (mutated)
Disease
Any change from the general state of good health
Autoimmune disease
Any condition in which antibodies act on an individual's own cells
Fermentation
Any desirable change in microorganisms impart to food
A microoganism has been described to you as living in hot acidic habitats in the waste piles of coal mines that regularly sustain a pH of 1 and a temperature of nearly 60°C. Which type of organism do you immediately assume it is?
Archaea
The current system of classification includes which three domains?
Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya
Endospores
Are a dormant form of a bacterium AND are formed by some members of medically relevant groups of bacteria
Pseudomonas
Are resistant to many disinfectants and antimicrobials AND are mostly harmless except for opportunistic species like P. aeruginosa
Scabies
Arthropod epidermal infestation
arbovirius
Arthropod-borne virus; one of a large group of RNA viruses carried by insects and mites that act as biological vectors
Listeria monocytogenes
Artisanal cheese prepared with raw milk
___ technique is used to prevent the contamination of a pure culture of microorganism with extraneous microorganisms and to prevent human contact with potentially dangerous microorganisms.
Aseptic
Toxoplasma gondii
Aspirated spores
Lichen
Association of algae and fungus
log phase
At what point in the bacterial growth curve are bacteria most vulnerable to antibiotics?
Prosthecae
Attachment and nutrient absorbtion
Which of the following is the correct order for phage replication?
Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, assembly, and release
Phenolic compounds
Attacks membranes of organisms Action is improved by halogens - hexachlorophene EFFECTIVE AGAINST MYOBACTERIA
Vegetative microorganisms and endospores
Autoclave Direct Flame Hot air oven for 2 hours at 160 degrees Celcius
The bubo of bubonic plague is due to: A. fluid build-up from pneumonia B. bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node C. septicemia resulting in disseminated intravascular coagulation and hemorrhaging D. erythrogenic toxin E. toxic shock syndrome toxin
B. bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node
This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin A. Fusarium species B. Aspergillus flavis C. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci D. Geotrichum candidum E. Rhizopus species
B. Aspergillus flavis
Organisms that inhabit soil or water and breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called A. Quaternary consumers B. Decomposers C. Tertiary consumers D. Primary consumers E. Secondary consumers
B. Decomposers
All of the following are foodborne pathogens except A. Campylobacter B. Streptococcus C. Clostridium D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Salmonella
B. Streptococcus
Cryptococcus neoformans is a A. Prion B. Fungus C. Helminth D. Bacteria E. Virus
B. Fungus
Where is the majority of earth's water found? A. Soil moisture B. Oceans C. Freshwater lakes D. Ground water E. Icecaps and glaciers
B. Oceans
The zone of soil around roots of plants is called the A. Hydrosphere B. Rhizosphere C. Lithosphere D. Ionosphere E. Biosphere
B. Rhizosphere
he normal biota of the CNS consists of A. Neisseria meningitidis B. The CNS has no normal biota C. Herpes simplex II D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. Herpes simplex I
B. The CNS has no normal biota
The causative agent of Lyme disease is: A. Bordetella pertussis B. Borrelia burgdorferi C. Ixodes scapularis D. Brucella melitensis E. Aedes aegypti
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
A. Causes the most serious form of acute meningitis B. Common cause of bacterial pneumonia C. More easily transmitted in schools, day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks D. Virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease E. Causes formation of petechiae
B. Common cause of bacterial pneumonia
The enzyme associated with the release of influenza virions from the infected cell is: A. Catalase B. Neuraminidase C. Hyaluronidase D. Kinase E. Reverse transcriptase
B. Neuraminidase
Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Fusion Inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct
B. Protease inhibitors
The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is: A. Retrovirus B. Rhinovirus C. Herpes simplex virus D. Coronavirus E. Adenovirus
B. Rhinovirus
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except: A. If virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed B. Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing C. Transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water D. Can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever and nausea E. Caused by Poliovirus (genus Enterovirus)
B. Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
The best defense against arboviruses is: A. Prophylactic rifampin B. Vector control C. Vaccination D. Prompt treatment with acyclovir E. All of the choices are correct
B. Vector control
The link between macrophages and neutrophils is that both cells A.Have large granules in the cytoplasm B.Are phagocytes C. Have a life span of about 10 years D. Lack a nucleus E. recognize tumor and virus infected cells and kill them
B. Are phagocytes
An epidemic disease is one that A. Is spread by animal bites B. Breaks out in explosive proportions in a population C. Is transmitted solely by arthropods D. Follows a primary infection E. Remains dormant in populations
B. Breaks out in explosive proportions in a population
A person who harbors a pathogen and is a source of infection to the next person is best referred to as as(n)
B. Carrier
A leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is A. Gonorrhea B. Chlamydia C. Syphilis D. Genital herpes E. HIV
B. Chlamydia
All of the following are characteristics of endotoxins except A. Is a product of the LPS layer B. Does not trigger an inflammatory response C. Cannot be converted to toxoid D. Usual source is Gram negative bacteria E. Only exposed when the cell dies
B. Does not trigger an inflammatory response
The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that contains the antigen binding site can be described as all of the following except the A. Fab fragment B. Fc fragment C. variable region D. light chain E. portion responsible for cross-linking
B. Fc fragment
Precipitation reactions between antigens and antibodies are characterized by A. Appearance of IgE in the immune system B. Formation of a structure called a lattice C. Inhibition of the complement system D. Destruction of the available red blood cells
B. Formation of a structure called a lattice
Which of the following is not an antigen? A. Capsomere B. Haptens C. Flagella proteins D. Components of bacterial capsules E. Pilus proteins
B. Haptens
Which of the following are cytokines produced in response to invasion by viruses A. RIG-1 B. Interferon C. Histamine D. Interleukin E. Colony-stimulating factor
B. Interferon
When the body has been exposed to exotoxins A. It will respond with toxoids B. It will produce antitoxins C. It will develop endotoxin shock D. It will produce hydrolytic enzymes like hemolysins or phospholipases E. It will lose the ability to respond to sensations
B. It will produce antitoxins
The ability to mount an efficient secondary antibody response depends on A. All of the choices are correct B. Memory T and B cells C. Cross-linking of IgM antibodies D. High concentrations of IgA antibody E. Class switching to IgD production
B. Memory T and B cells
The innate immune system recognizes pathogens by identifying unique microbial sequences not found on host cells. This system of recognition is called A. AMP B. PAMP C. TLR D. MHC E. ROS
B. PAMP
Which of the following are adhesins? A. Endotoxins B. Pili C. Siderophores D. Cilia E. Flagella
B. Pili
Sulfanilamide is active against those bacteria that A. Are commonly found in polluted water B. Synthesize folic acid C. Induce allergic reaction D. are actively synthesizing LPS E. Form granular lesions in the body
B. Synthesize folic acid
Fifth disease is accompanied by A. yellowing of the skin resulting from seepage of bile from the liver B. a fiery red rash on the cheeks resembling a slap C. infection of the kidneys and an interruption of urine production D. substantial lesion formation in the brain tissue and meninges E. itching, bad odor, patchy areas of hair loss
B. a fiery red rash on the cheeks resembling a slap
Opportunistic pathogens A. cause disease in every individual. B. cause disease in compromised individuals. C. are always pathogens. D. have well developed virulence factors. E. none of the choices is correct.
B. cause disease in compromised individuals.
None of the following applies to adenovirus URT infection except A. attaches to the nasopharyngeal mucosa by fimbriae. B. fatalities are rare and recovery is within 1-3 weeks C. it persists and causes a latent infection D. transmission is through an enveloped viral particle E. a virulence factor includes a capsule
B. fatalities are rare and recovery is within 1-3 weeks
The respiratory syncytial virus takes its name from the A. involvement of the liver tissue B. formation of giant cells in tissue culture cells C. involvement of the nervous system D. lysis of the red blood cells which accompanies the disease E. grouped mass of virions within a single viral envelope
B. formation of giant cells in tissue culture cells
A 63-year-old man farmer living in Florida who had a 4-day history of fever, myalgias, and malaise without localizing symptoms is brought to the regional hospital because he awoke from sleep with fever, emesis, and confusion. On physical examination, he had a temperature of 39° C, blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg, pulse of 110, and respirations were 18/minute. No respiratory distress was noted. Treatment was initiated for presumed bacterial meningitis. Basilar infiltrates and a widened mediastinum were noted on the initial chest radiograph. The Gram stain of CSF revealed many neutrophils and large gram-positive rods. During the first day of hospitalization, the patient had a grand mal seizure and was intubated. On the second hospital day, hypotension and azotemia (reduced kidney function) developed, with subsequent renal failure. On the third hospital day, refractory hypotension developed, and the patient had a fatal cardiac arrest.
Bacillus anthracis -60-day course of ciprofloxacin and doxycycline
Which of the following is a scientific name?
Bacillus subtilis
The dormant forms of which of the following genera are the most resistant to environmental extremes?
Bacillus, Clostridium
Lac operon
Bacterial DNA sequence encoding the proteins required for the degradation of lactose; it serves as one of the most important models for studying gene regulation
Resistent organisms
Bacterial endospores and fungal spores Mycobacteria Naked viruses Prions
Streak Plate
Bacterial isolation technique of spreading a droplet of culture or sample over the surface of a solid medium using an inoculating loop
assembling protein
Bacterial ribosomes are distinct from eukaryotic ribosomes. They have the same function of
30S ribosomal subunit
Bactericidal aminoglycoside target
Placing organisms at 4 ºC is Sterilization Decontamination Bacteriocidal Bacteriostatic None of the choices is correct
Bacteriostatic
Which of the following is mismatched?
Baker's yeast--algae
Treponema species
Bar fight
Cat scratch fever
Bartonella henselae
nucleotide
Basic subunit of RNA or DNA consisting of a purine or pyrimidine covalently bonded to ribose or deoxyribose, which is covalently bound to a phosphate molecule
These are found in large numbers in allergic reactions
Basophils
Which of the following genera preys on other bacteria?
Bdellovibrio
Normal Microbiota
Beneficial microbial inhabitants of the body
Normal microbiota
Beneficial microbial inhabitants of the body
Warts
Benign skin growths
Precipitation
Binding of soluble antigen with soluble antibody
UV light may induce a mutation by
Binding together adjacent thymine molecules on the DNA molecule
Extra-chromosomal peice of DNA
Bio-film
bioluminescence
Biological production of light
using bacteria to clean up pollutants
Bioremediation refers to
In situ bioremediation
Biostimulation performed on-site
Your supervisor asks you to set up a pure culture of a bacterial species he is researching. He tells you that this species is a fastidious, halophilic, gram-positive mesophile that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase. What type of culture medium and environmental factors must you use to grow this organism? Chocolate agar, pH 10, 65ºC in a CO2 chamber Blood agar, 25% NaCl, 35ºC, in an anaerobic chamber Nutrient agar, glucose-salts, 18ºC, air incubation MacConkey agar, bile salts, 37ºC, 17% oxygen Nutrient agar, gram-negative antimicrobials, 35ºC, in an anaerobic chamber
Blood agar, 25% NaCl, 35ºC, in an anaerobic chamber
OMPG/MUG test
Blue fluorescence in the presence of coliforms and Escherichia
Moist heat
Boiling Autoclave steamer (121-132ºC, 15 min or more)
Vegetative microorganisms, not endospores
Boiling water for 10 minutes
Which of the following is most likely NOT a common cause of pneumonia? Answer
Bordetella pertussis
A 6-week-old infant boy is brought to the hospital with a 10-day history of choking spells. His mother states he has had a repetitive cough, and is wheezing, turning red, and gasping for air. Following the coughing spells, the infant boy often vomits as well. A chest radiograph reveals his trachea is normal and clear, but his white blood cell count is up to 15,500/µL with 70% lymphocytes.
Bordetella pertussis -Azithromycin, erythromycin, and an acellular combined vaccine
Whooping cough is caused by
Bordetella pertussis.
What is the causative agent of Lyme's Disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
What is the causative agent of Relapsing Fever?
Borrelia recurrentis
Staphylococcus aureus
Boston cream pie contender at the Los Angeles County Fair pastry competition
True
Bulk removal of waste from a eukaryotic cell is accomplished via exocytosis
An old culture would have a negative impact on which of the following
Both the gram stain and motility result would be negatively impacted
__________ is the term that refers to false motility that's due to environmental motion.
Browian movement
Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent Plague Brucellosis Mononucleosis Tularemia Endocarditis
Brucellosis
Which is mismatched? A. Hepatitis E virus - self-limiting RNA virus B. Hepatitis C virus - RNA virus C. Hepatitis B virus - enveloped DNA virus D. Hepatitis A virus - nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA enterovirus E. Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV
C. Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV
The ______________ antibody class is referred to as the maternal antibody A. IgM B. IgE C. IgG D. IgA E. IgD
C. IgG
Nosocomial infections account for an estimated 2 million infections and 90,000 deaths each year in the United States. Which of the following is not a common cause? A. A high prevalence of pathogens in a hospital B. A high number of patients who represent compromised hosts and are susceptible to pathogens C. Inefficient air handling techniques D. Lack of hand hygiene E. Efficient mechanisms of transmission from patient to patient
C. Inefficient air handling techniques
T cells recognize epitopes only in the context of A. Complement B. Interleukin-2 C. MHC proteins D. B cells E. Granzyme
C. MHC proteins
Which of the following are most likely to cause disease? A. Pathogens which exist as spores B. Pathogens which survive in droplet nuclei C. Opportunistic pathogens in a weakened host D. Pathogens transmitted by fecal-oral transmission E. Highly virulent organisms
C. Opportunistic pathogens in a weakened host
An individual generally acquires natural active immunity after A. An infusion of T lymphocytes B. An injection of IgG C. Suffering an illness D. A blood transfusion E. Taking immunosuppressive drugs
C. Suffering an illness
Which one of the following does not apply to plasma cells? A. The are derived from B cells B. They are effector B cells C. They actively produce cytokines D. They live for four to five days E. They are large, highly complex cells
C. They actively produce cytokines
What do some bacteria in rapidly moving rivers and streams have in common with microbial mat bacteria? A. They are all autotrophs. B. All of the species are anaerobes. C. They are sessile to take greater advantage of nutrient flow. D. They are sulfur-oxidizers. E. They are halophiles.
C. They are sessile to take greater advantage of nutrient flow
Which of the following is the confirming test for people who initially tested HIV antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test? A. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) B. Therapeutic index C. Western blot D. Ouchterlony double diffusion E. Immunelectrophoresis
C. Western blot
Hepatitis C
C. a tattoo acquired in prison
Penicillin is useless for the treatment of primary atypical pneumonia because the causative organisms A. develop resistance rapidly B. are Gram-negative C. have no cell wall D. grow only within the cells E. possess penicillin-resistant PBPs
C. have no cell wall
An isograft has less chance of rejection than a xenograft because A. new blood vessels need not be formed in the isograft B. the isograft is not composed of living tissue C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft D. there are no antigens in an isograft E. it is an allograft
C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Campylobacter jejuni
HPV
Can be oncogenic
universal (body and body fluid) precautions
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines for health care workers regarding the prevention of disease transmission when handling patients and body substances.
Greenhouse gas
Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide that could disrupt the temperature balance of the earth.
Major elements
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorous, and sulfur may be considered
The scientist/s that proposed organisms be assigned to one of 3 domains is/are
Carl Woese and George Fox.
Lodophors
Carrier of iodine, which is the reactive agent precipitating or oxidizing proteins Used with iodine for skin disinfection - Povidone iodine (stable, non-toxic)
Parvovirus
Case of fifth disease
All of the following genera are spirochetes EXCEPT:
Caulobacter
Tuberculosis
Caused by a Mycobacterium
Strep throat
Caused by beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes
Selective toxicity
Causing greater harm to a pathogen than to the host
All of the following are essential to the process of gene regulation except
Chaperones
endoflagella
Characteristic structures of motility in spirochetes
The Human Microbiome Project seeks to
Characterize the microbial communities found at several different sites on the human body
enveloped virus
Characterized by a lipid bilayer surrounding the nucleocapsid
Catabolism
Chemical breakdown of complex compounds into simpler units to be used in cell metabolism
Acellular infectious agent
Chemical composition includes RNA or DNA
Chemotherapeutic agent
Chemicals used in treating disease
Elicits chemotaxis of immune cells
Chemokine
campylobacter
Chicken shish kebab prepared on a camping trip
All of the following are examples of new emerging infectious diseases except
Chickenpox
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Chickens
A female patient presents at her primary care physician complaining of pain in her groin. On examination, she is found to have enlarged inguinal lymph nodes and painless lesions around her genitalia and anus. She is also 5 months pregnant. Questioning reveals that her boyfriend has recently returned from a vacation to see his family in Venezuela. She is very distressed and fears for the baby. A diagnosis was made on the basis of positive serology to the serotypes of this non-motile, gram-negative, intracellular bacterium.
Chlamydia trachomatis-Tetracycline and erythromycin for both sex partners
The genus ____ requires a cellular host, causes sexually transmitted diseases, and worldwide blindness.
Chlaymdia
wash hands and clean wounds superficially
Chlorhexidine is a biguanide used to
What chemical is used in both water purification and sewage treatment to give long-term disinfection? A. Fluorine B. Activated charcoal C. Copper sulfate D. Chlorine E. All of the choices are used
Chlorine
Which one of the following elements would be classified as a halogen
Chlorine
Which step involves transformation?
Cloning host receives plasmid
Sporosarcina, Bacillus, and _______ have endospores.
Clostridium
Myonecrosis
Clostridium perfringens
gas gangrene
Clostridium perfringens
Lockjaw
Clostridium tetani
Granuloma
Collection of lymphocytes and macrophages accumulating in certain chronic infections; an attempt by the body to wall off and contain persistent organisms and antigens
Libraries
Collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host
Agglutination
Combining of cellular antigen with antibody
Plasmid, virus
Common vector for transfer of DNA into a cloning host
Contagious
Communicable
Treponema palladium (syphilis)
Communicable by direct acquisition via vertical transmission.
Malaria
Communicable by direct transmission via a biological vector.
Tuberculosis
Communicable by indirect transmission via air droplets
Staphylococcus aureus
Communicable by indirect transmission via fomites.
Sterile
Completely free of all microorganisms and viruses; an absolute term
A A sanitation engineer in Portland, Maine sends a water sample to your lab, and wants to know if there are lactose-fermenting microbes in the sample (their presence would indicate contamination with human waste). How might you determine if these microbes are present or not from this mixed-microbe specimen? A. Concentrate the sample with membrane filtration then place the filter on Thayer-Martin agar B. Concentrate the sample with membrane filtration then place the filter on a MacConkey agar plate (which contains lactose and a pH indicator that turns pink when acid by-products are present). C. Streak the sample for isolation on a blood agar plate (which contains lactose AND red blood cells that enrich the culture for iron). D. None of the above methods will work - there is no way to reliably determine this feature from the specimen given.
Concentrate the sample with membrane filtration then place the filter on a MacConkey agar plate (which contains lactose and a pH indicator that turns pink when acid by-products are present).
Titer
Concentration of antibody
the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other AND the energy gathered in one is utilized in the other
Concerning catabolism and anabolism
D. toxemia
Condition in which a toxin (microbial or otherwise) is spread throughout the bloodstream.
EBV (lymphoma)
Consumption of undercooked pork shoulder
Plasmid
Contains a few genes; not essential for cell
Which of the following are mismatched? A. brewer's yeast-S. carlbergensis B. glycocalyx-milk ropiness C. propionic acid-Swiss cheese D. starter culture-Pseudomonas E. botulinum-neurotoxin
D. starter culture-Pseudomonas
The causative organism for mumps is: A. Morbillivirus B. Corynebacterium C. Vibrio D. Paramyxovirus E. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Paramyxovirus
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except that it is: A. associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad spectrum antimicrobials B. a colitis that is a superinfection C. the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals D. due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies E. often from an endogenous source
D. due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food? A. Sulfite B. Salt C. Organic acids D. Antibiotics E. Ethylene and propylene oxide gases
D. Antibiotics
he breakdown of man-made compounds by decomposers is called A. Saprobism B. Parasitism C. Decomposition D. Bioremediation E. Mineralization
D. Bioremediation
Which organisms are used to make salt pickles? A. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus B. Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Spirulina C. Pediococcus cerevisiae and Lactobacillus plantarum D. Lactobacillus species and Leuconostoc mesenteroides E. Propionibacterium and Spirulina
D. Lactobacillus species and Leuconostoc mesenteroides
The conversion of ammonia (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) occurs during A. Photosynthesis B. Ammonification C. Nitrogen fixation D. Nitrification E. Denitrification
D. Nitrification
A pure or mixed sample of known microbes that are added to food is a/an A. Flavor inducer B. Leavening C. Aerator D. Starter culture E. Fermenter
D. Starter culture
Which is incorrect about rabies? A. Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis B. Is a zoonotic disease C. Transmission can involve bites, scratches and inhalation D. Average incubation in human is 1 week E. Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats and canines are primary reservoirs
D. Average incubation in human is 1 week
Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent: A. Mononucleosis B. Endocarditis C. Plague D. Brucellosis E. Tularemia
D. Brucellosis
Which is true of viral conjunctivitis? A. Has a mucopurulent, milky discharge B. Caused by Moraxella C. Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhea D. Caused by adenoviruses E. Must be treated with topical and oral antibiotics
D. Caused by adenoviruses
This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients: A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Malassezia furfur D. Pneumocystis jiroveci E. None of the choices is correct
D. Pneumocystis jiroveci
Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. Gram negative B. Lives in the stomach C. Curved rods D. Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea E. Produces urease that buffers stomach acidity
D. Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea
All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except A. Due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease B. Involves Treponema spirochetes, Prevotella, and Fusobacterium C. Common in crystal methamphetamine users D. Very communicable E. Associated with severe pain, bleeding, pseudomembrane formation, and necrosis
D. Very communicable
An example of natural passive immunity would be: A. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E. None of the choices is correct
D. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta
Retroviruses have the following characteristics except A. Enveloped B. Reverse transcriptase C. Viral genes integrate into the host genome D. DNA genome E. Glycoprotein spikes
D. DNA genome
Each of the following is true for Toxoplasma gondii except A. It is a nonflagellated parasite B. It is often fatal for AIDS patients C. Can cause stillbirth D. It has a narrow host range E. All of the choices are true
D. It has a narrow host range
Plasma cells: A. Function in cell-mediated immunity B. Are derived from T-lymphocytes C. Function in blood clotting D. Produce and secrete antibodies E. All of the choices are correct
D. Produce and secrete antibodies
Which is mismatched? A. Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site B. Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms C. Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site D. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites E. Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues
D. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? A. Start tissue repair. B. Destroy microbes. C. Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site. D. To cause a fever. E. Block further invasion.
D. To cause a fever.
All aminoglycoside antibiotics function by A. blocking DNA transcription. B. blocking absorption at the cell membrane. C. interfering with cell wall synthesis. D. attaching irreversibly to bacterial ribosomes. E. preventing normal metabolic functions.
D. attaching irreversibly to bacterial ribosomes.
Penicillin is most effective against: A. spores. B. log phase Gram (-) bacteria. C. stationary phase Gram (+) bacteria. D. log phase Gram (+) bacteria. E. stationary phase Gram (-) bacteria.
D. log phase Gram (+) bacteria.
Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lethargy, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D. ulcerations in GI tract, pneumonitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices is correct.
D. ulcerations in GI tract, pneumonitis, and retinitis.
A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans. A. secondary infection B. sequelae C. nosocomial infection D. zoonosis E. None of the choices is correct.
D. zoonosis
DiGeorge syndrome is A. Characterized by a goiter B. A defect of phagocytic cells C. Characterized by cytotoxic reactions D. Immune deficiency diseases E. Forms of type I hypersensitivity
D. Immune deficiency diseases
Which of the following are characteristics that can be utilized to distinguish between vaginitis and vaginosis A. Causative agent B. Presence of vaginal inflammation C. Presence of discharge D. All of the choices are correct
D. All of the choices are correct
How can you prevent warts from spreading? A. Maintain good hygiene. B. Do not pick at them. C. Do not share towels with someone who has them. D. All of the choices are correct. E. Avoid shaving over them.
D. All of the choices are correct.
An ELISA uses which of the following reagents? A. A source of complement B. A radioactive antibody C. An enzyme-labeled anti-antibody D. An enzyme-linked antibody E. A fluorescent enzyme
D. An enzyme-linked antibody
Infection of the urinary bladder is called A. Urethritis B. Vaginitis C. Pyelonephritis D. Cystitis E. PID
D. Cystitis
Tinea diseases are superficial cutaneous mycoses caused by several different genera of fungi. Each of the following is identified in this chapter as causing tinea except A. Trichophyton B. Microsporum C. Epidermophyton D. Emmonsiella
D. Emmonsiella
Which one of the following conditions is not associated with congenital rubella syndrome? A. Heart defects B. Encephalitis C. Viral excretion in body fluids for months post-birth D. Cataracts E. Deafness
D. Encephalitis
Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation? A. Formation of a membrane attack complex B. Attraction of phagocytes C. Lysis of the cell through cytoplasmic leakage D. Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction E. Production of C3b opsonin
D. Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction
The neutralization of toxin molecules by antitoxins accomplishes all of the following except A. Prevents attachment to specific molecules on the cell surface B. Inactivates the toxin molecule C. Lessens the ability of toxins to diffuse through the tissues D. Increases the activity between toxins and interleukins E. Masks the toxicity of toxin molecules
D. Increases the activity between toxins and interleukins
Cephalosporins act by Preventing peptide bond formation B. Interfering with cell wall biosynthesis C. Inhibiting protein synthesis D. Competitively inhibiting folic acid biosynthesis E. Inhibiting RNA synthesis
D. Interfering with cell wall biosynthesis
MRSA is resistant to A. Moxalactam B. Minocycline C. Macrolides D. Methicillin E. Metabolites
D. Methicillin
Vibrio cholerae
D. Raw oyster appetizer
Which of the following is considered a new emerging infectious disease? A. Polio B. Malaria C. Cholera D. SARS E. Smallpox
D. SARS
Complement marks pathogens for destruction by all of the following except A. C3B receptors B. Classical pathway C. Alternate pathway D. TLR E. MAC
D. TLR
IgE is the antibody involved in ____________ hypersensitivity A. Immune Complex B. Cellular C. Type IV D. Type I E. Type II
D. Type I
What is a phagolysosome? A. When a phagosome releases defensin and starts producing hydrogen peroxide B. When a phagosome releases histamine and other allergic stimulants in tissues C. When a phagocyte starts to produce lysosomes D. When a phagosome fuses with several lysosomes to digest a pathogen E. When a phagocyte moves with amoeba-like locomotion
D. When a phagosome fuses with several lysosomes to digest a pathogen
One notable side effect of rifampin therapy is: A. tinitis (ringing of the ears). B. pseudomembranous colitis. C. whole body allergic reactions called anaphylaxis. D. an orange-red color in urine, tears, and other body secretions. E. interruption of the auditory response.
D. an orange-red color in urine, tears, and other body secretions.
An enormous number of cholera bacilli must be present in contaminated food for infection to be established because A. antigenic variation to a harmless form will occur rapidly in the body. B. cholera bacilli are susceptible to the effects of bacteriophages. C. a large amount of toxin must be produced in the intestine. D. most will be destroyed by the stomach acid. E. they must be exposed to an anaerobic environment to grow vegetatively from their spores.
D. most will be destroyed by the stomach acid.
Dermatophytosis refers to fungal disease A. that resists antibiotic treatment B. that spreads to the internal organs C. that releases enterotoxins D. of the hair, skin, and nails E. that accompanies predisposing factors
D. of the hair, skin, and nails
Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. Gram negative B. curved rods C. lives in the stomach D. produces enterotoxin that causes diarrhea E. produces urease that buffers stomach acidity
D. produces enterotoxin that causes diarrhea
Tetracycline antibiotics interfere with A. cell wall biosynthesis. B. RNA synthesis. C. DNA replication. D. protein synthesis. E. Mismatch repair.
D. protein synthesis.
Staphylococcus aureus is associated with A. burn infections B. venereal disease C. urinary tract infections D. toxic shock syndrome E. gingivitis
D. toxic shock syndrome
The Kirby-Bauer test is useful for determining A. the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic. B. the origin of an antibiotic. C. whether side effects will result from use of an antibiotic. D. which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection. E. the tissue distribution of an antibiotic.
D. which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection.
This structure is composed of nucleotides and encodes the cell's genetic information
DNA
Palindromes
DNA sequence characteristic of restriction enzyme recognition site
The addition of DNase to a mixture of donor and recepiant cells will prevent gene transfer via:
DNA transformation
Carbuncle
Deep furuncle
Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?
Definitive host
Co-metabolism
Degradation of pollutants only in the presence of specific substrates
Bioluminesence
Density-dependent light emission
Phenolic
Derivative of phenol with great germicidal activity
Opportunistic
Describes a commensalistic microorganism that causes disease in certain conditions
Disinfection
Destruction of most organisms Used for heat-sensitive instruments - plastics, stethoscopes, countertops SPORES AND MYOBACTERIA MAY SURVIVE
Fermenter
Device used for growing mass fermenting cultures.
When aerobic and anaerobic respiration of glucose are compared, we find that
Different electron acceptors are used
You wish to bring in an example of a biofilm to the microbiology lab. Which of the following represents the best choice for bringing in an intact biofilm for further study? A. Scraping the mold off of the shower curtain in your bathroom into a paper cup using a clean butter knife and bringing the cup into the lab B. Wiping a sponge across a slimy boulder from a local stream in a nearby park and bringing it into the lab C. "Brushing" your teeth with a dry, clean toothbrush, placing it in a plastic bag and bringing it into the lab D. Using a plastic spoon to collect scum from a soap dish in a fast-food restaurant, then smearing it onto a slide to bring into the lab E. Disconnecting and bringing in the "float" from the toilet tank in your bathroom in to the lab
Disconnecting and bringing in the "float" from the toilet tank in your bathroom in to the lab
Sporadic
Disease outbreak occurs on occasion
Primary Infection
Disease that occurs in a healthy host
Communicable
Diseases that are spread from an infect animal or person to another animal or person
Antiseptic
Disinfectant that is non-toxic enough to be used on skin
herd immunity.
Does not exist without previous epidemic exposure to, or vaccine intervention against, a disease agent
Cyst
Dormant cell with tough covering
ethambutol
Drug used in tuberculosis therapy
prontosil
Dye that contains sulfa molecule; its use began the practice of treating diseases with drugs
Which of the following is/are microorganisms that can be used as food? A. Spirulina B. Single-cell protein C. Algae D. Fusarium graminearum E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is A. Leuconostoc mesenteroides B. Spirulina C. Propionibacterium D. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus E. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Which of the following is a foodborne intoxication? A. Vibrio enteritis B. Campylobacteriosis C. Salmonellosis D. Listerosis E. Staphyloccocal aureus
E. Staphyloccocal aureus
Which of the following happens when food is placed in the refrigerator? A. Refrigeration eliminates the most resistant bacterial spores, especially those of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium B. Refrigeration eliminates pathogenic bacteria from milk; the process also lowers the total number of bacteria and thereby reduces the change of spoilage C. Refrigeration results in low oxygen levels which prevent the growth of facultative aerobes, limiting them to fermentative ATP production D. Refrigeration destroys many enzymes in the food product and prevents any further cellular metabolism from taking place E. Refrigeration reduces the rate of enzyme activity in a microorganism and thus lowers the rate of growth and reproduction 2 points Question 12
E. Refrigeration reduces the rate of enzyme activity in a microorganism and thus lowers the rate of growth and reproduction
The normal biota of the CNS consists of: A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Herpes simplex I C. Herpes simplex II D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. The CNS has no normal biota
E. The CNS has no normal biota
Indicator organisms are A. Coliforms B. Enterococci C. Suggestive of fecal contamination D. Used in water quality tests E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes A. High temperature and pressure B. Pasteurization C. Refrigeration and freezing D. Irradiation E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Abnormal prion proteins are designated as A. Scrapie^sc B. Priods C. PrP^p D. PrP^c E. PrP^sc
E. PrPsc
Spongiform encephalopathies are: A. Associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain B. Chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system C. Caused by prions D. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, scrapie, and bovine spongiform encephalopathy E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Virulence factors of S. pyogenes include: A. Polysaccharides on the cell wall B. Lipoteichoic acid C. Spiky M-proteins D. Capsule to provide adherence E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection? A. Nasal hairs B. Cilia C. Mucus D. Macrophages E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes except: A. Can be controlled by viral lysis B. Can result in septicemia C. Possesses flagella D. Resistant to cold E. Penetrates alveolar macrophages
E. Penetrates alveolar macrophages
Which of the following is the best definition of an antibiotic A. A chemical that is made in the pharmaceutical laboratory B. Medications preferred because they are most effective as well as least toxic C. A chemotherapeutic agent that harms the infectious organism D. The concentration of the drug that destroys the pathogen E. A product that is derived from the metabolism of living microorganisms
E. A product that is derived from the metabolism of living microorganisms
Warts are caused by A. Enveloped RNA viruses B. Enveloped DNA viruses C. Non-enveloped RNA viruses D. Bacteria E. Non-enveloped DNA viruses
E. Non-enveloped DNA viruses
Herpes simplex I A. Is exclusive to oral mucosa B. Is exclusive to genitourinary tract C. Confers immunity to Herpes simplex II D. Is cleared by acylovir E. None of these choices is correct
E. None of these choices is correct
The beta lactam nucleus is the basic structure of A. The Ribosome B. Aminoglycosides C. Chloramphenicol D. Tetracycline E. Penicillin
E. Penicillin
A human form of BSE is called A. TSE B. scrapie C. kuru D. wasting disease E. variant CJD
E. variant CJD
Thiomargarita namibiensis is found in an environmental sample. Which of the following should then apply to this sample? A. contains chemolithotrophs B. elemental sulfur is providing electrons C. obtained from the ocean D. there are no larger bacteria present E. All of the choices apply.
E. All of the choices apply.
Antigen presenting cells: A. Include dendritic cells B. Include macrophages C. Engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic D. Hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Immunotherapy is the: A. Use of antitoxins B. Use of immune serum globulin C. Conferring of passive immunity D. Administering of preformed antibodies E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Titer is the amount of: A. Memory cells in serum B. Complement in serum C. WBC in serum D. Antigen in serum E. Antibody in serum
E. Antibody in serum
Histamine causes all the following except: A. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle B. Fever and headache C. Constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine D. Wheal and flare reaction in skin E. Increased sensitivity to pain
E. Increased sensitivity to pain
Nutrient deficient aquatic ecosystems are called A. Epitrophic B. Hypotrophic C. Autotrophic D. Eutrophic E. Oligotrophic
E. Oligotrophic
One of the distinctive characteristics of Yersinia pestis cells is A. acid-fast staining. B. capsule. C. spirochete cell type. D. production of polar endospores. E. bipolar staining.
E. bipolar staining.
All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except A. oral bacteria are introduced to the blood via dental procedures B. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. C. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation. E. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
E. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
Defenses of the GI tract against pathogens include A. Mucus, acid, and saliva B. Secretory IgA and enzymes C. Peristalsis D. GALT E. All of the choices are GI tract defenses
E. All of the choices are GI tract defenses
Macrophages are involved in A. Activating the acquired immune response B. Phagocytosis C. Release of cytokines and lipid mediators that will trigger an inflammatory response D. Granuloma formation E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Norwalk agent is A. a calcivirus B. transmitted orofecally C. sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish D. A common enteric virus of gastroenteritis E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
What accounts for the great amount of diversity in antibodies? A. Multiple gene segments coding for the light and heavy chains of an antibody are located on different chromosomes and rearranged independently B. The combining of different light and heavy chains in the assembly of different immunoglobulin molecules C. The DNA rearrangement of the multiple light and heavy chain genes D. Mutations E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? A. debridement of the wound B. hyperbaric chamber C. amputation D. rigorous cleansing of deep wounds E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which on of the following is not an effect of complement activation? A. Formation of an attack complex B. Attraction of phagocytes and enhancement of phagocytosis C. Lysis of the cell through cytoplasmic leakage D. Increased blood vessel permeability E. Degradation of mRNA, cessation of protein synthesis and apoptosis
E. Degradation of mRNA, cessation of protein synthesis and apoptosis
Which of the following tests would a veterinarian conduct to detect rabies in the brain of a skunk? A. Virus neutralization B. Agglutination C. Hemagglutination inhibition D. Western blot E. Direct fluorescent antibody
E. Direct fluorescent antibody
A disease that is usually present at a low level in a certain geographic area is said to be A. Ubiquitous B. Pandemic C. Epidemic D. Non-communicable E. Endemic
E. Endemic
Infection due to Haemophilus ducreyi may be identified by the isolation of A. staphylococci from skin lesions. B. Gram-positive rods from the feces. C. diplococci from the spinal fluid. D. spirochetes from gumma lesions. E. Gram-negative rods from genital papules.
E. Gram-negative rods from genital papules.
Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that is an example of a(an) _____________ hypersensitivity A. Anaphylactic B. Hyposensitization C. Cytotoxic D. Cellular E. Immune complex
E. Immune complex
The virulence of an organism may be enhanced by all of the following except A. Its ability to spread through the tissues B. Its ability to escape from the phagosome C. Its ability to overcome body defenses D. Its ability to produce exotoxins E. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media
E. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media
A disease that is world-wide like HIV/AIDS is said to be A. Communicable B. Epidemic C. Ubiquitous D. Endemic E. Pandemic
E. Pandemic
Live, beneficial microbes provided to populate the intestines are known as: A. Riboswitches B. Lantibiotics C. Phytobiotics D. Prebiotics E. Probiotics
E. Probiotics
Pathogenicity The organisms of botulism, tetanus, and diphtheria are distinguished by their A. Production of spores B. Chemotaxis C. Ability to produce coagulase D. Growth in anaerobic environments E. Production of exotoxins
E. Production of exotoxins
One of the objects of desensitization procedures is to A. Control transplantation rejection B. Increase the level of IgE in the vascular system C. Stimulate the production of interferon D. Destroy immune complexes that may have formed in the blood vessels E. Reduce the number of basophils and mast cells to which IgE attaches
E. Reduce the number of basophils and mast cells to which IgE attaches
Normal flora may be found in all of the following environments except A. The vagina B. The pharynx C. The axilla D. The upper respiratory tract E. The blood
E. The blood
Food allergies are a form of __________ hypersensitivity A. Type IV B. Type III C. Type II D. secondary E. Type I
E. Type I
Actinomyces israelii A. can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. causes most cases in the immunocompromised. C. can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. D. lives in the soil. E. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.
E. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.
The toxins produced by tetanus bacilli A. induce a cytokine storm B. are endotoxins C. are produced under aerobic conditions D. cause paralysis E. induce uncontrolled contractions of the muscles
E. induce uncontrolled contractions of the muscles
Which one of the following is not associated with measles? A. Koplik spots B. a red skin rash C. a rare brain disease called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. an RNA paramyxovirus E. inflammation of the salivary glands
E. inflammation of the salivary glands
In the prodromal phase, symptoms A. are at their height B. have not developed yet and there is no sign of disease C. have begun to disappear D. indicate the host has accumulated antibodies and memory lymphocytes that prevent reinfection E. may include nausea, fever, and headache
E. may include nausea, fever, and headache
The beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provide long-lasting protection. A. plasma cells B. phagocytotic cells C. antibodies D. T helper cells E. memory cells
E. memory cells
How is HPS (hantavirus pulmonary syndrome) treated? A. with antibiotics B. with oxygen therapy C. with chemotherapy D. with electrolyte and fluid replacement E. none of the choices is correct
E. none of the choices is correct
Cyst formation by certain protozoa permits A. survival in the arthropod vector. B. the use of carbon dioxide as an energy source. C. sexual reproduction. D. enhanced reproduction by the protozoan. E. passage through the stomach acid and other environmental stresses.
E. passage through the stomach acid and other environmental stresses.
The diagnosis of tuberculosis is aided by A. a positive catalase test B. observation of cells with bipolar staining in the blood C. a posotive Weil-Felix test D. a skin rash on the palms and soles E. recovery of acid-fast rods from the sputum
E. recovery of acid-fast rods from the sputum
Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of A. oak trees and grape vines B. the winter months C. the reproductive organs D. soldiers and other military personnel E. the lungs
E. the lungs
All of the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections except A. the catheterization of patients can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infections. B. they often form an endogenous source. C. they typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices. D. the organism is coagulase negative E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.
E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.
Why must the specimen in an electron microscope be placed in a vacuum within a sealed chamber? Electrons are particles and there are also particles which comprise air. Without a vacuum, the electrons would strike and be scattered by the atoms/particles of the air components. All of the above are true. Exposure to a vacuum is the method for fixing the specimen to the slide grid for an electron microscope. Without vacuum exposure, the specimen would slide off and would not be visible. Electrons are highly radioactive, and the chamber must be completely sealed to prevent them from escaping and contaminating the lab area.
Electrons are particles and there are also particles which comprise air. Without a vacuum, the electrons would strike and be scattered by the atoms/particles of the air components.
All fermenters use which pathway?
Embden Meyerhoff pathway
The ability of a fungus to cause human illness can occur through the following mechanisms except
Endospore germination
Lipids are primarily important as ___.
Energy storage molecules
β-lactamase
Enzyme that breaks the β-lactam ring of a β-lactam drug, thereby inactivating the medication
____ are usually composed of protein and aid in chemical reactions without being used up.
Enzymes
Which of the following statements is the most correct for enzyme reactions?
Enzymes are specific for only one reaction, generally in one direction
Granules are toxic to parasites, flukes and tapeworms
Eosinophils
Members of which of the following genera are coliforms?
Escherichia
Monetzuma's Revenge is associated with the following organism?
Escherichia coli
Which domain includes eukaryotic cells?
Eukarya
phylogeny
Evolutionary relatedness of organisms
The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called
Excision repair
alcoholic fermentation
Extraction of energy through an incomplete, anaerobic degradation of glucose into ethanol
During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a variable in the study.
False
If during the gram stain procedure, the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied, gram positive cells would be purple but gram negative cells would be colorless.
False
Isotopes are elements with the same atomic weight but different atomic number
False
It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world.
False
Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.
False
Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
False
Oils are more saturated than fats.
False
Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised.
False
One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells.
False
Protists are more susceptible to killing by penicillin than Gram-negative bacteria
False
You are likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea in a heavily chlorinated swimming pool
False
Which of the following is not a major class of organic compounds?
Fat
Enteric
Fecal coliforms
Which scientist discovered heat resistant bacterial spores?
Ferdinand Cohn
Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known as
Gene probes
dichotomous key
Flowchart of tests used for identifying an organism; each test gives either a positive or negative result
Sporothrix schenkii
Flying debris lacerations sustained during tornado winds
Dimorphic
Forms determined by environmental conditions
Aflatoxin
Found in grains spoiled by Aspergillus
Peroxidase enzyme
Found in neutrophil granules, saliva, and milk that together with hydrogen peroxide and halide ions make up an effective antimicrobial system
Helped disprove the theory of spontaneous generation with his famous meat experiment
Francesco Redi
Developed recombinant techniques and developed the field of modern molecular genetics
Frederick Griffith
Penicillin roquefortii
Fungus imparting texture, flavor and bluish green veins in cheese
Clenched-fist injury
Fusobacterium and Prevotella (anaerobes)
Hay fever
Grass pollen or other airborne antigen elicits degranulation and allergic rhinitis
Flesh-eating disease
Group A Streptococci
Membrane transport that modifies the substance being transported into the cell so that it can't be lost from the cell
Group translocation
All carbohydrates are composed of: ______.
H, C, O
specific technique used for diagnosis
Hansen's disease- skin biopsy Amoebic dysentery- stool sample pharyngitis- throat culture malaraia- blood smear chest x-ray- tuberculosis
A 62-year-old Navajo potter came to the emergency department because of a fever of 40° C, lumbar pain, nausea, vomiting, and loose, runny stools. The patient exhibited a non-productive cough and reported severe shortness of breath ('like an elephant sitting on her chest'). She reports that the symptoms began a few days after cleaning out a storage shed on her property to expand her studio space. Her respiratory rate was 18 breaths/min, and her blood pressure was 85/55 mm Hg. Chest radiographic examination showed extensive infiltrates in the left lower lung that involved both the lower lobe and the lingula.
Hantavirus-No proven treatment is available
Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product
denatures enzymes by altering their tertiary structures
Heat is useful in the destruction of bacteria because heat
Taq polymerase
Heat-stable DNA polymerase of the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus
reacting with protein sulfhydryl groups to disrupt function
Heavy metals generally kill microorganisms by
Is a common cause of stomach ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori
A 52 year old man is hospitalized after complaints of nausea, vomiting and a strange constant feeling of fullness (patient belches continuously during physical exam). Upon an examination of his medical records, the medical staff finds he has a peptic ulcer that was not being treated due to lack of symptoms. A noninvasive urease test was performed and was found to be positive confirming their suspicions.
Helicobacter pylori- Proton pump inhibitor, macrolide and beta-lactam antibiotics
Which cell can transfer the most DNA?
Hfr cell
Which is not true concerning the cell wall of bacteria? It contains peptidoglycan. It may be targeted by antimicrobials. It prevents the bacteria from bursting. It determines the shape of the bacteria. It is the site of group translocation.
It is the site of group translocation.
Urticaria
Hive with puffy center surrounded by red flared area
water movement by osmosis AND the cell wall prevents bursting, but NOT water is limited by the cell membrane
How is water balance controlled in bacterial cells?
Discovered the causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fevers
Howard Ricketts
Anaphylaxis
IgE-mediated mass release of basophilic inflammatory mediators; may be fatal
Discovered heat stability is linked to the presence of endospores
John Tyndall
Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA fingerprinting?
Hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample
They produce different amounts of energy because not all electron acceptors are the same-some are closer in terms of electronegativity to their high-energy electron carrier molecules (e.g. NADH) than others. The amount of energy that can eventually be obtained is directly proportional to the degree of difference between the high-energy electron carrier and the eventual terminal electron acceptor. The greater the difference, the greater the energy obtained. Oxygen typically has the highest degree of difference of the terminal electron acceptors utilized.
If the processes of aerobic and anaerobic respiration are basically similar - differing only in the terminal electron acceptor -why do they produce different amounts of energy?
Developed the handwashing technique
Ignaz Semmelweis
Exponential phase
In a bacterial growth curve, stage in which cells multiple exponentially; log phase
Biological vector
In epidemiology, any living organism that can carry a disease-causing microbe; most commonly arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks
competent
In horizontal gene transfer, physiological condition in which a bacterial cell is capable of taking up DNA
Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?
In kingdom Protista
vector
In molecular biology, a piece of DNA acting as a carrier of a cloned fragment of DNA; in epidemiology, any living organism that can carry a disease-causing microbe, most commonly arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks
Ligase
In recombinant DNA work this enzyme seals the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes
Water
In the phototrophic production of energy, the oxygen originates from
Genus
In the scientific name Bacillus anthracis, the term Bacillus is the
uncoat
In virology, the separation of the protein coat from the nucleic acid of the virion
Toxoid
Inactivated toxin
Subunit vaccine
Inactivated type: pili and capsules used
DNA polymerases used in PCR
Include Taq polymerase
The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to
Incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation
M protein
Increases pathogenicity of organisms
latent infection
Infection in which the infectious agent is present but not active
Meningitis
Infection of tissues covering brain and spinal cord
chronic infection
Infection that develop slowly and persist for months or years
prion
Infectious protein causing a neurodegenerative disease
penicillin G
Inhibits cell wall synthesis by Gram-positive bacteria
Bacteriostatic
Inhibits the growth of bacteria
Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?
Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan
Vector
Insect that transmits disease
Who was the virologist that developed the first polio vaccine?
Jonas Salk
Diplococcus
Involution forms
Which of the following is not an electrolyte?
Iron
Streptococcus pyogenes
Is beta-hemolytic
The lactose repressor
Is inactivated by binding allolactose
Tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid
Isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens, it allows those organisms to cause tumors in plants; a derivative is used as a vector to introduce DNA into plants by genetic engineering
Bacteriostatic
It inhibits the growth of bacteria
One of the first in the first to use antiseptics in surgery
Joseph Lister
The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
Joseph Lister
Lyme disease
Its cause is a spirochete
Built the earliest known compound microscope
Janssens
Developed and used four postulates which were used in sequence to prove that a certain microorganism caused a certain disease
Koch
Who established the criteria for identifying which specific organism caused a specific disease?
Koch
Taxonomy does not involve
Koch's postulates.
In which pathway is the most NADH generated?
Krebs cycle
The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins
Krebs cycle
Thermoplasma and Picrophilus grow best in which of the following extreme conditions?
LOW pH & HIGH temperature
Which molecules are not associated with the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria? peptidoglycan D-form amino acids N-acetylmuramic acid teichoic acids LPS
LPS
T-independent antigen
LPS or carbohydrates with repeating subunits which can activate B cells without TH cell help
anoxic
Lacking O2
Under which of the following conditions will transcription of the lac operon occur?
Lactose present/glucose absent
Mycobacterium avium
Latent prior infection
Latex agglutination
Latex beads, to which specific antibodies have been attached, produce visible clumps of aggregates in the presence of the specific antigen
In late 2011, 200 cases were associated with an outbreak at a fundraiser in Los Angeles which took place at the Playboy Mansion. All individuals had symptoms of fever, chills, myalgia, malaise, and headaches. The source of the outbreak was shown to be the heating system for the hot tub and swimming pool.
Legionella pneumophila-Rifampin and treat the water source with hyperchlorination
Mycobacterium leprae is the causative agent of
Leprosy
Least Resistance
Level of resistance to antimicrobial control for enveloped virus and vegetative
A triglyceride is an example of a:
Lipid
Membrane Filtration
Liquid media containing heat-sensitive components would best be sterilized by
When a bacterial cell number is doubling every unit time, it is in the
Logarithmic (log) phase
Dealt final defeat to theory of abiogenesis
Louis Pasteur
Developed the rabies vaccine and the anthrax vaccine for sheep
Louis Pasteur
bacteriostatic
Low temperature is
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)
Measure of pollution in water
Digests the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria
Lysozyme
Colony
Macroscopic cluster of cells appearing on a solid medium arising from a single cell
antigenic shift
Major change in a viral surface antigen that render antibodies made against the previous version ineffective
Tinea versicolor
Malassezia furfur
Horizontal Transmission
May occur with a sexual act
Which of the following describes the function of the lacZ' gene in a cloning vector?
Means of distinguishing cells that have taken up recombiant molecules
Which of the following archea would most likely be found coexisting w/ bacteria?
Methanococcus
Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) method
Method using rapid heating to render a product free of all microorganisms capable of growth under normal storage conditions
Mesophile
Microbe whose optimum growth temperature is between 25°C and 45°C
Penicillinase
Microbial enzyme that destroys the β-lactam functional group
biotype
Microbiological group of strains having a characteristic biochemical pattern different from other strains; also called a biovar
Microbiota
Microorganisms present in healthy host
All of the following are true about DNA repair mechanisms except
Mismatch repair involves replacing long sequences of DNA
Flocs
Mixed population of aerobic microbes that grow as suspended biofilms
denaturation
Moist heat kills microorganisms by
Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes?
Monera
In the tissues, these mature into macrophages
Monocytes
These are agranulocytes
Monocytes
Mesophiles
Most of the human pathogens are
An important indicator of evolutionary relatedness is to determine
Nitrogen base sequence of rRNA
Clostridium tetani (tetanus)
Non-communicable.
Alcohols
Non-toxic to skin but has a drying effect More effective in presence of water - 70% is more effective than 95%
These characteristics can be used to help identify bacteria except
Nonculturability
Why would a cell respire rather than ferment? None of the above All of the above are possible Conditions (pH, oxygen concentrations, etc) have changed to such a point that respiration is no longer possible There's no oxygen present, and it cannot respire anaerobically It lacks the ability to respire (i.e. not electron transport chain)
None
The sugar fructose is composed of _______.
None of the above
In anaerobic respiration, all of the following molecules can be used as final electron acceptors except
O2
An An organism that cannot tolerate the absence of oxygen in the environment is a/an Obligate aerobe Facultatitve anaerobe Microaerophile Obligate anaerobe Microaerophile
Obligate aerobe
It has been estimated that most of the intestinal bacteria are
Obligate anaerobes
Flexible helix
Obligate intracellular parasites
The term phototroph refers to an organism that
Obtains energy from sunlight
Sporatic
Occurring irregularly
The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen
Occurs in certain bacteria
Primary treatment
Organic waste removal from raw sewage
Parasitism
Organism feeds on host
Acidophile
Organism that grows optimally at a pH below 5.5
chemoorganotroph
Organism that obtains energy by oxidizing organic compounds such as glucose
Halophile
Organism that prefers or requires a high salt (NaCl) medium to grow
Autotroph
Organism that uses CO2 as its main carbon source
saprophyte
Organism utilizing nutrients from dead and decaying matter
Decomposer
Organisms inhabiting soil or water which breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms.
Dry heat
Oven (2-3 hours at 170ºC)
in a hot air oven
Oxidation of proteins is achieved most readily
The energy producing process where ATP is produced and oxygen is the final electron acceptor is
Oxidative phosphorylation
The ___________ group of protists produce hydrogen and contain hydrogenosomes for ATP production instead of mitochondria
Parabasalid
Helminths are
Parasitic worms
Abiogenesis was finally disproved by the work of:
Pasteur
Rubella
RNA virus; causes mild symptoms in adults and fetal fatalities
Pathogenic microorganisms, not endospores
Pasteurization Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) processing
Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
Pattern of fragment sizes obtained by digesting DNA with one or more restriction enzymes
IgM
Pentameric form maintains its location to control infections in the bloodstream
Golden Age Microbiology
Rapid discovery of basic microbiology principles
Which of the following occur in Photosystem 2?
Photon energy is absorbed by chlorophyll and electrons are emitted and water is photolysed.
Which is not a characteristic of fungi?
Photosynthetic
Which is used to produce most of the ATP in living systems?
Photosystem 1 and Electron Transport System
Also called non-cyclic phosphorylation
Photosystem2
oxygenic phototroph
Phototrophic organism producing O2
Pasteurization
Physical control method for Pathogenic microorganisms, not endospores
Autoclave, direct flame, boiling water for 10 minutes, Hot air oven for 2 hours at 160 degrees Celcius, Gamma radiation, Filtration, Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) processing
Physical control method for Vegetative microorganisms and endospores
Pasteurella multocida
Pitbull mauling of arm
Portal of entry
Place where parasite invades host
Bacteriostatic
Placing organisms at 4 ºC is
Golden Age of Microbiology
Rapid discovery of basic microbiology principles
very effective at the mechanical removal of microorganisms
Plain soap is quite effective in controlling spread of microorganisms because it is
transgenic
Plants and animals into which new DNA has been introduced by genetic engineering
R plasmids
Plasmids encoding resistance to one or more antimicrobial medications and heavy metals
R plasmids
Plasmids that encode resistance to one or more antimicrobial medications and heavy metals
neurotropic
Poliovirus (poliomyelitis)
Amplification of DNA is accomplished by
Polymerase chain reaction
Lagoon
Pond for decomposing sewage
A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eucaryote without cell walls. In which kingdom will it likely be classified?
Protista
In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom
Protista
Protozoa belong to the Kingdom:
Protista
False
Protists are more susceptible to killing by penicillin than Gram-negative bacteria
A 41 year-old male firefighter was brought to the E.R. with third degree burns in 28% of his body. His vital signs were unstable blood pressure = 55/35; heart rate = 210 beats/min.; and respiratory rate = 40 breaths/min. He was deteriorating from circulatory failure. After his vital signs stabilized the patient was treated with topical broad spectrum antibiotic. Despite the treatment, some affected areas became necrotic and the patient developed sepsis. After 7 days of aggressive treatment with antibiotics the patient died.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa- High dose intravenous fluoroquinolones or imipenem, debridement
best temperature for growth
Psychrophiles and thermophiles differ with respect to their
An exogenous example would be a toxin
Pyrogen
PulseNet catalogs which of the following?
RFLP
A primer of ____________ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition
RNA
CD8 receptor
Receptors on cytotoxic T cells
Mutualism
Relationship that benefits both species
Trace element
Required in very minute amounts by all cells including cobalt, zinc, copper, molybdenum, and manganese
Prions
Resistant to the usual sterilization procedures for pathogens
The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is
Respiratory Infections
Prokaryotic defenses against viruses includes
Restriction modification systems
Herd immunity
Results from a successful vaccination program
Intoxication
Results from ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells growing in the food.
infection
Results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine
nematodes
Roundworms
teratogenic (disturbs fetal growth)
Rubivirus (rubella)
Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile?
SIM
Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi?
Sabouraud's agar
Ascus
Sac in which sexual spores are produced
What is the causative agent of Typhoid Fever?
Salmonella typhi
Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals. These fungi are called
Saprobes
anticodon
Sequence of three nucleotides in a tRNA molecule that is complementary to a codon in mRNA
Insertion sequence (IS)
Short piece of DNA able to move from one site on a DNA molecule to another; simplest type of transposable element
Fimbriae
Short straight hair-like fibers
Which one of the following would be consistent with the idea of spontaneous generation?
Sick people give rise to microorganisms in their body
What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for?
Silent
Streak-plate method
Simplest, most commonly used technique for isolating bacteria; a series of successive streak patterns is used to sequentially dilute an inoculum on the surface of an agar plate
Metachromatic Granules
Site of nutrient accumulation in cell
Metachromatic granules
Site of nutrient accumulation in cell
Scarlet fever
Skin rash with strep throat
Tuberculin test
Skin test for tuberculosis
Chlorhexidine
Slower killing, but residual action Cl is a powerful oxidant
Humus
Slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues found in the soil
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Soft shell clams that live buried in the mud on tidal mudflats
Composting
Solid organic matter is naturally decomposed
The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in
Specialized transduction
The smallest and most significant taxon is
Species
Bacteriocidal
Specifically kills bacteria
A A bacterial arrangement called a sarcina has which of the following morphological shapes?
Spheres in packets of eight
A 15-year-old girl admitted to the hospital with a 2-day history of pharyngitis and vaginitis associated with vomiting and watery diarrhea. She was febrile and hypotensive on admission, with a diffuse erythematous rash over her entire body. Laboratory tests were consistent with acidosis, oliguria, and disseminated intravascular coagulation with severe thrombocytopenia. Her chest radiograph showed bilateral infiltrates suggestive of "shock lung." (edema, impaired perfusion, and reduction in alveolar space so that the alveoli collapse). She was admitted to the hospital intensive care unit where she was stabilized, and she improved gradually over a 17-day period. On the third day, fine desquamation started on her face, trunk, and extremities and progressed to peeling of the palms and soles by the 14th day.
Staphylococcus aureus -Methicillin, protective isolation, and exfoliation to prevent a secondary infection
Bacterial endospores are not produced by
Staphylococcus.
In the growth cycle of a culture, the period where the cells are being replaced at the same rate as they are dying is
Stationary phase
E. coli 0157:H7
Steak tartare (minced raw beef)
Extrinsic factor
Storage temperature, atmosphere
Nucleoid
Stores essential genetic information
MRSA S. aureus
Strains of Staphylococcus aureus that are resistant to methicillin
Rat bite fever
Streptobacillus moniliformis
A catalase-negative colony growing on a plate that was incubated aerobically could be which of these genera?
Streptococcus
A common bacterial agent of sore throats is Streptococcus pyogenes; the genus name is
Streptococcus
production of glucan
Streptococcus mutans
Pneumococcus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
IMpetigo
Streptococcus pyogenes
What is the causative agent of Strep throat?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following is a correct scientific name> A. Gram positive streptococcus B. Anthrax C. Streptobacilli D. Staphlococcus E. Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pyogenes
True
The 70S ribosomes of Eukarya form part of the evidence for the endosymbiont theory
different types of bacteria
The Gram stain technique is valuable in distinguishing
Dutch spectacle makers who are credited with the discovery of the first compound microscope, about 1590.
The Janssens
production of pyruvate from glucose
The Krebs cycle accounts for all the following except
retroviruses
The group of viruses possessed of a single-stranded RNA genome; their enzyme, reverse transcriptase, synthesizes a DNA copy that is then integrated into the host cell chromosome
Denaturation
The action of heat or chemicals on proteins whose function depends upon an unaltered tertiary state
Combination therapy
The administration of two or more antimicrobial medications simultaneously to prevent the growth of mutants that might be resistant to one of the antimicrobials
aw
The amount of water available in foods
Septic shock
The array of effects including fever, drop in blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation, resulting from infection of the bloodstream or circulating endotoxin
A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?
The culture medium must be selective.
regulate movement of molecules which enter and leave the cell
The cytoplasmic membrane of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes functions to
ethylene oxide with an inert gas
The chemical counterpart of the autoclave uses
Which of the following is not true of eucaryotic cells?
The chromosome is a single continuous thread.
plaque
The clear area in a monolayer of cells
The EMP pathways function as
The common pathway for fermentation of glucose
Spontaneous generation
The converse of biogenesis
Glycolysis
The energy-yielding breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid; no molecular oxygen is consumed in the degradation
Index Case
The first diagnosed hepatitis infection from a contaminated salad bar at Wendy's®
Index case
The first identified case of a disease in an epidemic
Plankton
The floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.
cyanobacteria
The group of Gram-negative oxygenic phototrophs genetically related to chloroplasts
lactic acid bacteria
The group of Gram-positive bacteria generating lactic acid as the major end product of their fermentive metabolism
Beta (β)-lactam drugs
The group of antimicrobial medications that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis and have a shared chemical structure called a β-lactam ring.
Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSE's)
The group of fatal neurodegenerative diseases in which brain tissue develops sponge-like holes
Generation time
The interval of time between successive binary fissions of a cell or population of cells is known as the
prophage
The latent form of a temperate phage whose DNA has been inserted into the host DNA
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration, MIC
The lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication that prevents growth of a given microbial strain in vitro
MIC
The lowest drug concentration that inhibits bacterial growth
All the following apply to the process of protein synthesis except
The mRNA sequence is the same as that on the DNA template strand
Phospholipase
The membrane-damaging toxin that enzymatically removes the polar head group on phospholipids
contain sterols for strength
The membranes of eukaryotes and mycoplasma
C. pathogen
The microbial cause of disease; the agent.
Lysogenic conversion
The modification of cell properties resulting from expression of phage DNA integrated into a bacterial chromosome
Toxoid
The modified form of a toxin that is no longer toxic but still able to stimulate the production of antibodies capable of neutralizing the toxin
Human Genome Project
The now-completed undertaking to sequence the human genome
Infectious dose
The number of microorganisms or viruses sufficient to establish and infection; often expressed as ID50 in which 50% of the hosts are infected
Biofilms
The polysaccharide-encased community of microorganisms that may enhance bioremdiation efforts AND may protect organisms against harmful chemicals are called
exon
The portion of a eukaryotic gene that will be transcribed and then translated into protein; interrupted by introns
bacteremia
The presence of viable bacteria in circulating blood.
Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion assay
The procedure used to determine bacterial susceptibility to concentrations of an antimicrobial medication usually present in the bloodstream of an individual receiving the drug
Western blot
The procedure using labeled antibody molecules to detect specific proteins that have been separated by gel electrophoresis
Symbiosis
The prolonged association of two dissimilar organisms or symbionts
viron
The viral particle in its inert, extracellular form
Mycelium
The woven, intertwining mass of hyphae that makes up the body of a mold is a/an
All of the following are true of DNA probes except
They are segments of RNA
Mycoplasmas are bacteria that lack cell walls. On the basis of this structural feature, which of the statements below is true about mycoplasmas They possess typical prokaryotic flagella They are gram-negative They undergo ready fossilization in sedimentary rock They are subject to lysis in hypotonic conditions They lack a cell membrane as well
They are subject to lysis in hypotonic conditions
What happens to the carbon molecules in the pyruvic acid that goes through the TCA cycle? A. They continue on to the fermentation pathway B. They become carbon dioxide C. They are excreted as waste organic acids D. They get incorporated into cell materia E. They form "energy storage molecules" and are stored by the cell
They become carbon dioxide
If the processes of aerobic and anaerobic respiration are basically similar - differing only in the terminal electron acceptor -why do they produce different amounts of energy? They produce different amounts of energy because not all electrons are brought into the electron transport chain with the same amounts of potential energy. NADH, for example, enters the electron transport chain 'further up' than FADH2-so it will result in less proton motive force being generated, therefore less eventual ATP.
They produce different amounts of energy because not all electron acceptors are the same-some are closer in terms of electronegativity to their high-energy electron carrier molecules (e.g. NADH) than others. The amount of energy that can eventually be obtained is directly proportional to the degree of difference between the high-energy electron carrier and the eventual terminal electron acceptor. The greater the difference, the greater the energy obtained. Oxygen typically has the highest degree of difference of the terminal electron acceptors utilized.
Microaerophile
They survive in environments where O2 concentration is relatively low but are inhibited by high O2 levels
anneal
To form a double-stranded duplex from two complementary strands of nucleic acid
Sterilization
Total destruction of all microorganisms
Ethylene oxide gas
Toxic alkylating agent used for sterilizing heat-sensitive materials PRODUCE TOXIC OR MUTAGENIC BY-PRODUCTS
Which of the following is not true of conjugation?
Transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule
Genetically modified
Transgenic animals
Which of the following statements about gene expression is false?
Translation begins @ a site called a promoter
The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by
Transposons
Decontamination
Treatment to reduce the number of pathogens to a level considered safe
Ringworm
Trichophyton species
disrupting cell membranes
Triclosan destroys bacteria by
A hypothesis must be tested before it can be considered a theory.
True
A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes.
True
Incineration
Use of dry heat to burn microbes to ashes
Rhodamine, fluorescein
Used in indirect FA technique
base pairs
Used to convey the size of DNA
Antisepsis
Used to kill most organisms on skin or in tissue KILLS MOST ORGANISMS, SOME MYOBACTERIA DOES NOT KILL SPORES
Disinfection
Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation to non-animate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is:
Methane producing bacteria
Utilize CO2 as a final electron acceptor and cause cows and sewage systems to produce methane within their systems
ultraviolet (germicidal) light
Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?
BCG
Vaccine for tuberculosis
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota from the female reproductive tract during childbearing years? Vaginal pH is neutral Sustained in part by estrogen-caused glycogen release Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid Candida albicans present in small amounts Secretory IgA provides protection
Vaginal pH is neutral
A 31 year old male presented to the local ER in late summer and immediately passed a large watery stool with "rice water" appearance. He then vomited several times and became slightly sweaty. After consulting the patient, it was determined he had just returned to U.S. from a 3 week long ecotourism trek to the Madre de Dios region of the Peruvian amazon. On the second day home, GI symptoms star
Vibrio cholerae - Oral rehydration therapy
The agent which causes AIDS is a _____.
Virus
Viremia
Virus particles circulating in the bloodstream
Which one of the following sequences exhibits increasing size?
Viruses to bacteria to protozoa
Linked mosquitoes to the spread of Yellow Fever
Walter Reed
Effluent
Wastewater treatment liquid product
How is water balance controlled in bacterial cells?
Water movement by osmosis AND the cell wall prevents bursting, but NOT water is limited by the cell membrane
What is the source of hydrogen that is used to reduce CO2 is photosynthesis?
Water, Sulfur compounds or hydrogen gas
Devised a model of the structure of DNA
Watson and Crick
Identify the two men that first described the structure of a DNA molecule.
Watson and Crick
The presence of this material within the bacterial cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) results in this organism being so invasive and difficult to treat.
Wax D
LPS
Which molecules are not associated with the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria?
Bacterial endospores and Prions
Which of the following are resistant to destruction by typical control methods?
Temperature, oxygen, an pH
Which of the following conditions are most likely to affect the growth of bacteria?
decolorizing too long AND using old cultures
Which of the following may result in Gram-positive bacteria appearing to be Gram-negative?
Viable plate count
Which of the following methods of enumerating cells is the only one to exclusively detect live cells?
standard plate count using dilution series
Which of the following methods of measuring population growth is a viable cell count?
Crystaliized and studied the tobacco mosaic virus
Wendell Stanley
They become carbon dioxide
What happens to the carbon molecules in the pyruvic acid that goes through the TCA cycle?
Asthma
Wheezing and stressed breathing
water osmoses out of microorganisms causing them to shrivel
When food has been salted
definitive host
Wherein a parasite sexually reproduces
What is the causative agent of the Plague?
Yersinia pestis
False
You are likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea in a heavily chlorinated swimming pool
Glycolysis
You are studying an obligate anaerobe. Which one of the following pathways can you be assured is occurring?
Disconnecting and bringing in the "float" from the toilet tank in your bathroom in to the lab
You wish to bring in an example of a biofilm to the microbiology lab. Which of the following represents the best choice for bringing in an intact biofilm for further study?
Blood agar, 25% NaCl, 35C, in an anaerobic chamber
Your supervisor asks you to set up a pure culture of a bacterial species he is researching. He tells you that this species is a fastidious, halophilic, gram-positive mesophile that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase. What type of culture medium and environmental factors must you use to grow this organism?
A molecule that is a combination of two or more different elements in a fixed ration, is called a ___.
a and b both
Which of the following is not a part of a nucleotide?
a carboxyl group
NaCl, when dissolved in water, would dissocate into Na+ and Cl-. What term would refer to Na+?
a cation
All bacterial cells have
a chromosome
Sarcinae refers to
a cuboidal packet of cells.
Although impossible to prove, when using the scientific method, ____ is a scientific theme that attempts to explain biological observed data or information. This is step 2 in the scientific method.
a hypothesis
Which of the following is not always contained in a lipid?
a metal
which of the following organisms are resistant to destruction by typical control methods
a) endospores of Bacillus and Clostridium b) Pseudomonas c) naked viruses d) Mycobacterium spp e) all of the choices are correct<----
Also called substrate phosphorylation
a/k/a fermentation
This is the disproven idea that life arose from nonliving matter
abiogenesis
In the Kreb's Cycle
acetyl co-A is oxidized
The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and use energy is called
active transport
The process where a substance is moved from low to high concentration by a carrier molecule and requires ATP to drive the mechanism is
active transport
Genetic changes that were not present in the parent but enables survival of the offspring best describes
adaptation
This is is the process of an organism coping its with environment
adaptation
The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
add contrast in order to see them better.
Ideal solidifying agent employed in solid culture media to study microorganisms.
agar
The process of alcoholic fermentation produces
alcohol and carbon dioxide.
Extraction of energy through an incomplete, anaerobic degradation of glucose into ethanol
alcoholic fermentation
Members of this group are photosynthetic:
algae
Endospores are
all choices are correct
Which of the following organisms may be the causative agent of food poisoning?
all of above
ATP
all of the above
Which of the following may be oxidized as an energy source?
all of the above
A major function of proteins is
all of these
The bacterial cell membrane
all of these
What means do microorganisms use for locomotion?
all of these
Which of the following methods is used to count living bacteria?
all of these
Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except
amoebic dysentery
The freq. of transfer of an F' molecule by conjugation is closest to the freq. of transfer of:
an F plasmid by conjugation
The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is
an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.
The periplasmic space is
an important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell.
Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called
anabolism.
A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycollic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture?
anaerobe
You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing at the bottom of the tube. You conclude the culture must be
anaerobic
In which of the following are inorganic ions the final electron acceptor?
anaerobic respiration
Bacillus anthracis is the causative agent of
anthrax
Monoclonal antibodies
antibody molecules with a single specificity produced in vitro by lymphocytes fused with a type of malignant myeloma cell
Which of the following is the protein portion of the enzyme?
apoproten
Biofilms are a haphazard mixture of bacteria may enhance bioremediation efforts may protect organisms against harmful chemicals are a polysaccharide-encased community of microorganisms are a polysaccharide-encased community of microorganisms, may enhance bioremdiation efforts AND may protect organisms against harmful chemicals
are a polysaccharide-encased community of microorganisms, may enhance bioremdiation efforts AND may protect organisms against harmful chemicals
The Gram stain, acid-fast stain and endospore stain have the following in common: Answer
are differential stains
Filamentous phages:
are extruded from the host cell
All of the following pertain to endotoxins except they
are found in acid fast bacterial cell walls.
Plasma Membrane
are involved in group translocation, Contain components of the electron transport chain for ATP generation, involved with signal sequences in secretion
Chromosomes
are linear rods contained within a nucleus, replication is followed by binary fission, are closed circular single molecules
Viruses
are obligate intracellular parasites, have a protein coat that surrounds the genetic information,
Acute infections in animals:
are the result of productive infection/ generally lead to long-lasting immunity
All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
are too small to be seen with the unaided eye
Bacterial ribosomes are distinct from eukaryotic ribosomes. They have the same function of
assembling protein
Tail fibers on phages are associated with?
attachment
Basic dyes are
attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells.
Myasthenia gravis
autoimmune disease characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoantibodies
Low temp is
bacteriostatic
Flagella are anchored to the plasma membrane by a series of hooks and rings called
basal body
Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
belief in a preconceived idea
Using the periodic table, identify the element whose electrically neutral atom has 2 energy levels with 2 electrons in the outer energy level.
berylium
Psychrophiles and thermophiles differ with respect to their
best temperature for growth
A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?
bile salts
Prokaryotic cell division occurs via
binary fission
The presence of this substance makes endospores temperature resistant
calcium dipicolinate
Body lice:
can act as a vector to transmit diseases
Acidophile
can be found growing in the human stomach
An organism that grows best at a higher CO2 tension than is normally present in the atmosphere is a(n)
capnophile
Protective layer formed by microbes in aquatic environments
capsule
Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized?
capsule
What type of media contains just one kind of sugar, such as monosaccharide or disaccharide, and is used to determine if the organisms can utilize the sugar or not?
carbohydrate media
We get most of our food energy from ____.
carbohydrates
Chemical breakdown of complex compounds into simpler units to be used in cell metabolism
catabolism
The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and peptides is an example of
catabolism.
An atom of potassium, whose atomic number is 19, is more likely to become (a cation or an anion)?
cation
What is the name given to any positively charged ion?
cation
Prions
cause diseases of humans
In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the
cell membrane
The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the
cell membrane
If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is
cell wall
The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's
cell wall
Which of these cellular structures may not be present in all procaryotes?
cell wall
Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial
cell walls
Prokaryotic cells may best be described as
cells that have a pronounced absence of organelles
In which level of organization do bacteria exist?
cellular
The level of organization that could be appropriately exemplified by Bacillus subtilis
cellular
Organisms that acquire their energy from the oxidation of inorganic chemicals are
chemoautotrophs
Most bacteria, as well as all fungi and protozoa, are
chemoheterotrophs
Organisms that obtain their energy from the oxidation of organic compounds are
chemoheterotrophs
_________is the terms that refers to the negative or positive chemical attraction of microbes to their environment.
chemotaxis
The Rickettsial diseases, Scrub Typhus, is transmitted via
chiggers
Insects and some fungi contain the polysaccharide:
chitin
An F pilus is essential for:
chromosome transfer by conjugation/ plasmid transfer by ""
Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except
cilia
Lymph
clear yellow liquid that containing leukocytes and flows within lymphatic vessels
Which of the following can be used to generate a DNA library?
cloning
Which of the following is most likely non-motile?
cocci
When a rod shaped bacteria is short and plump, it is called a
coccobacillus.
The properties that all plasmids share are that they:
code for non-essential functions/ replicate in cells in which they are found
What removes the groups from the reaction area that the enzyme removed?
coenzyme
Which of the following are organic ions?
coenzyme
Most electron carriers are
coenzymes
Which of the following are inorganic ions?
cofactor
Which of the following brings the substrate into closer union with the enzyme?
cofactor
A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called
cofactors
The macroscopically visible growth of microorganisms on a solid culture media.
colony
When yeast ferment glucose, the end products are
commonly associated with beer and wine production
Media that contains extracts from plants, animals or yeasts are Answer
complex
Culture media that contains various substances whose precise chemical composition are unknown.
complex media
Autoimmune disease
disease produced as a result of an immune reaction against one's own tissues
Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation to non-animate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is: A. degermation B. antisepsis C. disinfection D. none of these is correct E. sterilization
disinfection
Triclosan destroys bacteria by
disrupting cell membranes
A A differential medium is one that
distinguishes colonies of one type of bacterium from those of another type
An acid-fast strain can be used to detect which of the following organisms?
domain
Cells that contain cholesterol in their plasma membrane must have a cell wall for protection.
false
Gram negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
false
Iodine is the decolorizer in the Gram stain.
false
The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane.
false
The term diplococci refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells.
false
Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right):
family, genus, species
Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called
fastidious.
A A Abacterium that uses glucose as an energy source has been isolated from an anaerobic environment. After the growth of the bacterium, the pH of the growth medium is measured and found to be very acidic. When analyzed, the medium is found to have a high concentration of lactic acid. This bacterium is most likely metabolizing by a process known as
fermentation
Acids and gas are produced as end products here.
fermentation
In which of the following are intermediates products the final electron acceptor?
fermentation
Systemic anaphylaxis
generalized allergic reaction caused by IgE, resulting in a profound drop in blood pressure
TCA Cycle
generates two carbon dioxide molecules per turn
The the interval of time between successive binary fissions of a cell or population of cells is known as the
generation time
The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the
generation time
When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
genetic engineering
The term ____ refers to the entire set of genes or genetic makeup in a cell.
genome
In the scientific name Bacillus anthracis, the term Bacillus is the
genus name
What kind of media contains dissolved or suspended particles that result from a boiling or soaking action (e.g. nutrient broth)?
infusion media
The properties of the glycocalyx include which of the following
inhibit desiccation
Which of the following puts the Five "I"s in their correct order?
inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification
The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is
inoculation.
In the Gram stain, the mordant is
iodine
What type of bond is formed by the transfer of (an) electron(s)?
ionic
An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is
iron
Feedback inhibition is a means of regulating the amount of product produced often involves the use of allosteric enzymes involves inhibiting the last of a series of reactions results in raising the activation energy for the reaction is a means of regulating the amount of product produced AND often involves the use of allosteric enzymes
is a means of regulating the amount of product produced AND often involves the use of allosteric enzymes
The ploymerase chain rxn uses Taq polymerase rather than a DNA polymerase from E. coli, b/c Taq polymerase:
is heat stable
A a substance that has been pasteurized
is not considered sterile
The bacterial chromosome
is part of the nucleoid.
What is number 2 of Koch's Postulates?
isolate the microbe and grow in a pure culture in the lab
Fructose and glucose are ___.
isomers
What is the name that refers to atoms with the same atomic number but with different atomic masses/weights?
isotopes
Which is incorrect about chocolate agar?
it has chocolate extract in it
Why is water so necessary for proper metabolism?
it is a polar solvent
Why is water so necessary in metabolism?
it is a polar solvent
All of the following are correct about agar except
it is a source of nutrition for bacteria.
Sterilization
killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object.
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms?
lack of cell structure
Which of the following is a disaccharide that is produced by the combining of glucose and galactose?
lactose
After the inoculation of a new culture, the period of time where there is no increase in cell numbers is called the
lag phase
The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the
lag phase
This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve in which adaptation to a new environment occurs
lag phase
Which portion of the LPS molecule is most toxic?
lipid A
Spontaneous generation is the belief that
living things arise from nonliving matter.
What is the name of the theory, or hypothesis, that describes how an enzyme works, or bonds specifically with, its substrate?
lock and key
Clostridium tetani causes a disease commonly referred to as
lockjaw
At what point in the bacterial growth curve are bacteria most vulnerable to antibiotics?
log phase
This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve in which rapid growth and an increase in cell numbers occurs.
logarithmic phase
Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be
lophotrichous.
An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is
magnesium
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorous, and sulfur may be considered acidic elements major elements minor elements fastidious elements neutral elements
major elements
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes?
malaria
What is the measurement of the amount of matter contained in an object?
mass/weight
Glycolysis requires oxygen produces 3 ATP molecules produces 4 molecules of NAD may occur under aerobic or anaerobic conditions produces 3 ATP molecules AND produces 4 molecules of NAD
may occur under aerobic or anaerobic conditions
Glycolysis
may occur under aerobic or anaerobic conditions, the energy-yielding breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid; no molecular oxygen is consumed in the degradation
Antigen
molecule that reacts specifically with an antibody or lymphocyte
Ligand
molecule that specifically binds to a given receptor
Monocyte
mononuclear phagocyte of the blood; part of the mononuclear phagocyte system of so-called professional phagocytes
GI tract - via saliva exchange
mononucleosis
The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram positive bacterial cell wall structure is
more peptidoglycan.
Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?
mosquito
A hanging drop slide preparation is useful for determining which of the following
motility
Describes the flagella movement within procaryotes
motor boat like
The term heterotroph refers to an organism that
must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a _____ relationship.
mutualistic
Anaerobic fermentation
mutualistic rumen microflora
The genus with no cell wall is _______.
mycoplasma
Alcohols are not reliably effective at destroying
naked viruses AND endospores
A type of control mechanism where the product inhibits its own production at the enzyme level is called
negative feedback
When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called
negative feedback
Technique of staining the background of a specimen when a specimen resists taking up a stain.
negative stain
Which type of reaction may be used to aid ph balance?
neutralization
A + B ---> AB + H2O is an example of a _______ reaction.
neutralization reaction
All of the following are examples of basic dyes except
nigrosin
Which type of microbe causes removal of nitrogen from the soil?
nitrate reducers
An important indicator of evolutionary relatedness is to determine
nitrogen base sequence of rRNA.
A. Can progress to a septicemia B. Patient has fever, headache, nausea, pneumonia C. Transmitted by respiratory droplets D. Severe internal hemorrhaging E. Caused by Yersinia pestis
not A
Protective features of the skin include all of the following except: A. Keratinized surface B. Lysozyme C. High salt content D. Low pH E. Resident biota
not D
A common causative agent of acute endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Candida albicans D. Neisseria gonorrhea E. All of the choices are correct.
not E
Which of the following is incorrect about water? A. Finding coliforms in high numbers indicates fecal contamination of the water. B. When a water quality test is negative for coliforms, it is considered fit for human consumption. C. The membrane filter method is a widely used rapid method to test large quantities of water for quality. D. the (Most Probable Number) MPN specifically detects fecal coliforms. E. There is no acceptable level for fecal coliforms, enterococci, viruses, or pathogenic protozoans in drinking water.
not a
Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease? A. Removal of blood B. Urogenital tract and feces C. Coughing and sneezing D. Skin E. All of the choices are normal exit portals
no e
Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA) and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media?
non synthetic
Diazotroph
non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria
In which of the following is the element and its number of bonds paired correctly?
none are correct
Nitrate reducers
none of the above
A good range of temperature to store food is A. Below -10º C and above 100º C B. 0º-50º C C. Below 4º C and above 60º C D. Below 10ºC and above 80º C E. 20º-80º C
not A
The majority of organisms live or grow in habitats between
pH 6 and 8.
Which type of microbial association would most likely be described as disease causing microbes?
parasites
mumps
parotitis
Disease-causing microorganisms are called
pathogens
Penicillin enrichment of mutants works on the principle that:
penicillin kills only growing cells
The type bond that links amino acids together
peptide bond
Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called
periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
A bacillus that was covered with many flagella over its entire surface would be
peritrichous
The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is
peritrichous.
Flagella
permit eukaryotic motility, may have peritrichous or polar arrangements, are used for chemotaxis
All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except
petri dish
_____ is a type of microscope that is very useful for observing unstained living microorganisms
phase contrast
This microscope shows cells against a bright background and also shows intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities:
phase-contrast
A microscope that has it usefulness based upon the differences of densities between cell components and their surroundings.
phase-contrast microscope
The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to genetically engineer which of the following cell types?
plants
Quantitating viral tilters of both phage and animal viruses frequently involves:
plaque formation
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. phenolics-peracetic acid B. sodium hypochlorite-chlorine C. benzalkonium chloride-quaternary ammonium compound D. formalin-formaldehyde E. iodophor-iodine
phenolics-peracetic acid
Herd immunity
phenomenon occuring when a critical concentration of immune hosts prevents the spread of an infectious agent
Which of the following is the type of lipid that is the basic component of cell membranes?
phospholipid
Which of the following molecules has a hydrophobic portion and a hydrophylic portion?
phospholipid
Which of the following is a major component of biological plasma membranes?
phospholipids
Which type of organism obtains its energy from light and carbon from CO2?
photoautotrophs
Which of the following uses the sun as its energy source?
photosynthesis
All of the following release CO2 into the atmosphere except A. photosynthesis of land plants. B. respiration in the ocean. C. respiration of land plants. D. combustion of coal.
photosynthesis of land plants.
Also called cyclic phosphorylation
photosystem 1
The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called
phylogeny
The appendages that facilitate the transfer of DNA from one cell to another are
pili
_________is an extra-cellular structure that is involved in exchange of genetic material called conjugation. Answer
pili
Haemophilus aegyptius is the causative agent of
pink eye
A culture of E. coli is irradiated w/ UV light. The highest frequency of mutations would be obtained if, after irradiation, the cells were immediately:
placed in the dark
All of the following are directly involved in translation except:
promoter
All of the following are involved in transcription except:
primer
Class switching
process allowing a B cell to change the antibody class it is programmed to make
Mixed acid fermentation
produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases.
The the Krebs cycle accounts for all the following except
production of pyruvate from glucose
The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
prokaryotes
The type of cell that has a pronounced absence of membrane bound organelles
prokaryotic
A A laboratory technician has two pure isolated biological samples he is working with: one of a virus, and one of a viroid. Unfortunately, the labels came off the tubes when they were placed in the refrigerator. The technician was sure he could distinguish between the two samples by analyzing for the presence of a single type of molecule. What type of molecule would he be looking for to differentiate between the two samples? protein DNA monosaccharides lipids RNA
protein
Capsids are composed of:
protein
The Rickettsial diseases, Murine Typhus, is transmitted via
rat fleas
Heavy metals generally kill microorganisms by
reacting with protein sulfhydryl groups to disrupt function
Pattern recognition receptors, PRR
receptors which bind lipopolysaccharide, peptidoglycan, and other molecular patterns associated with microbes
What color would a gram-negative bacteria appear when viewed with a microscope after the complete Gram staining procedure?
red/pink
Disinfection
reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms to pose no threat of disease.
Epitope
region of an antigen recognized by antibodies and antigen receptors on lymphocytes
The the cytoplasmic membrane of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes functions to A. form endoplasmic reticulum B. produce energy C. determine the effectiveness of sterilization methods D. regulate movement of molecules which enter and leave the cell E. form lysosomes and golgi apparatus
regulate movement of molecules which enter and leave the cell
Degranulation
release of mediators from a cell's granules such as histamine released from mast cells
Exergonic reactions
release potential energy
You are trying to isolate a mutant of wild-type E. coli that requires histidine for growth. This can be done using:
replica plating/ penicillin treatment
An enzyme used to synthesize the AA tryptophan is most likely
repressible
Oxidative Phosphorylation
requires cytochromes for electron transport, ends with acceptance of electrons by oxygen atoms, starts with the oxidation of NADH, results in the formation of water.
Photosynthesis
requires electrons eventually be passed to NADPH, Requires energy from light to take place, uses chlorophyll as the pigment in the cyanobacteria, is essentially the opposite of aerobic respiration
Fastidious
requiring special nutritional or environmental conditions for growth-applies to bacteria
fastidious
requiring special nutritional or environmental conditions for growth-applies to bacteria
The closest spacing between two points at which they can still be seen clearly as separate entities.
resolution
The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs
resolution
Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?
resolving power
Also called oxidative phosphorylation.
respiration
Enzyme induction
results in enzyme production
Phosphorus cycle
results in eutrophication from detergent waste water run-off
Glycogen is most similar to ___.
starch
Bacillus food poisoning is associated with the ingestion of
starchy foods such as rice
A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of
simple staining
Which term refers to a pair of shared electrons?
single covalent
Classification of viruses is based on all of the following EXCEPT:
size of virus
Some bacteria possess a polysaccharide surface layer that is less firmly attached to the bacterial cell than a "capsule" and is called a ____.
slime layer
Cytokine
small regulatory protein produced by cells to affect the behavior of other cells
Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
solid medium
The smallest and most significant taxon is
species
A gram negative cell that has lost its cell wall is a
spheroplast
Chemolithoautotroph
symbiotic primary producer in hydrothermal vent
Plant roots provide various growth factors for soil bacteria, and the bacteria help fertilize the plant by supplying it with minerals. This is an example of
synergism.
Collagen and keratin are examples of which basic type of protein?
structural proteins
In which level of organization would viruses exist?
subcellular
The level or organization that includes viruses
subcellular
Hapten
substance to which antibodies may bind but unable to ellicit the production of those antibodies unless attached to a large carrier molecule
A reducing medium contains
substances that remove oxygen
This is what the enzyme exerts its effect upon.
substrate
Which of the following is not formed by the dehydration synthesis of only glucose molecules?
sucrose
What is the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration?
sulfate or nitrate
Normal flora of the gut is best describe as
symbiosis
Autotroph
uses CO2 as a source of carbon
The term autotroph refers to an organism that
uses CO2 for its carbon source
All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it
uses electron's to produce a specimen image.
A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed
synthetic
Dark-field microscopy is utilized in the diagnosis of the primary stage of this disease.
syphillis
Treponema pallidum is the causative agent of
syphillis
In the treatment of sewage, sludge tanks A. collect sediment material that cannot be digested by microorganisms. B. contain algae, fungi, bacteria, nematodes and protozoa in a biofilm to aerobically digest the organic waste C. take advantage of anaerobic bacteria to digest sediment material. D. use a schmutzdecke to purify the liquid waste. E. facilitate the growth of yeast to oxidize the liquid phase of sewage.
take advantage of anaerobic bacteria to digest sediment material.
Which of the following conditions are most likely to affect the growth of bacteria?
temperature, oxygen, and pH
Bioremediation refers to rehabilitating wayward bacteria vaccine development monitoring newly discovered disease organisms the use of probiotics using bacteria to clean up pollutants
using bacteria to clean up pollutants
Conjugate vaccine
vaccine composed of a polysaccharide antigen covalently attached to a large protein molecule, thereby converting what would be a T-independent antigen into a T-dependent antigen
The cell structure associated with increased virulence due to the inhibition of phagocytosis is
the capsule
A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation?
the culture is contaminated
If you place a prokaryotic cell into a hypertonic environment
the cytoplasm of the cell will shrink
All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging/reemerging diseases except the decrease in drug resistant bacteria speed of travel and globalization of commerce campaigns to discourage vaccination against childhood diseases changes in agricultural practices human encroachment in wild habitats
the decrease in drug resistant bacteria
All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases except
the decrease in drug resistant bacteria.
Of the following, the most efficient method for sterilization of a bacteriological transfer loop is
the direct flame
Concerning catabolism and anabolism they refer to reactions solely dealing with the metabolism of lipids the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other the energy gathered in one is utilized in the other they refer solely to the reactions involved in synthesis of carbohydrates the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other AND the energy gathered in one is utilized in the other
the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other AND the energy gathered in one is utilized in the other
All of the following are characteristics of eukaryotic gene expression EXCEPT:
the mRNA is often polycistronic
Methanol fixation is desired if
the organisms are easily damaged by heat
Acid mine drainage is cause by
the oxidation of iron sulfide
Sauerkraut and yogurt are preserved because
the ph decreases
All of the following apply to the process of anabolism except
the process is exergonic
Carbon
usually forms four covalent bonds
Anaerobic cellular respiration
utilizes an electron transport system.
A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37° C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an
thermoduric
An organism with a temperature growth range of 45° C to 60° C would be called a/an
thermophile
Hyperthermophile
these have been found in seawater from hot water volcanic vents
Hyperthermophlia
these have been found in seawater from hot water volcanic vents
Barophile
they are able to live at the bottom of the ocean
Psychrophile
they are able to live at the bottom of the ocean
All of the following are correct about biofilms except
they are harmless aggregations of microbes.
Alkaliphile
they can tolerate a pH above 8.5
Which of the following statements regarding tapeworms is FALSE?
they complete their life cycles in a single host
Anaerobe
they do not or cannot use oxygen
Facultative Anaerobe
they grow best in the presence of oxygen but can grow in the absence of oxygen
Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure:
trace element
Chlamydia is the causative agent of
trachoma
A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.
true
All procaryotic cells lack a true nucleus.
true
Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls
true
Swelling or branching of cells in old cultures
two cocci in pairs
trypanosomiasis
ucontrollable sleepiness
Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?
ultraviolet (germicidal) light
Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped culture tube? All of the choices are correct gamma rays 160º C for 2 hours ultraviolet (germicidal) light 121º C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
ultraviolet (germicidal) light
Brucellosis
undulating fever
Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes, is mismatched? Answer
unique hydrocarbon present - cyanobacteria
Brucellosis is transmitted via
unpasteurized milk or direct contact with infected animals
Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A. Respiratory secretions B. Feces C. Saliva D. Urine E. Blood
urine
Plasmolysis
use of high concentrations of salts and sugars create hypertonic environment causing water to leave cell action, used in food preservation
