Skeletal System quiz 2
osteons
Compact bone is made up of _______________ cemented together.
acetabulum
The femur inserts into the pelvic girdle at the ____________________.
atlas
The first vertebra is called the _____.
diaphysis
The long shaft of a bone such as the femur is called its ______.
third-class
A forceps is an example of a _____ lever arrangement.
70 %
Bone salts comprise ____% of the bone by weight.
flat
By morphology, the parietal bone can be classified as a _____ bone
osteoblast
During osteogenesis, which of the following cells would appear first?
simple fracture
Fractured bone does not pierce the skin.
206
How many bones are there in the body?
56
How many phalanges are there in the body?
spongy bone
Inside the epiphyses of each long bone, mostly ________________ can be found.
Volkmann canal
Osteons have a _____, which provides a means of communication between them. run horizontal between each group of osteons.
resting cells
Several layers of cells reside within epiphyseal disks of developing long bones. Which layer is responsible for anchoring the disk to the bony epiphysis?
periosteum
The _____ allows a bone to increase its diameter during periods of growth. not only the fibrous outer membrane surrounding a bone but it also contains the cells (osteogenic) that will deposit new bone.
maxilla
The hard palate is made of the palatine and _____ bones.
intervertebral
The spinal nerves will exit from the _____ foramina.
8
There are _____ bones that make up the cranium.
There is a frontal or metopic suture that separates the frontal bone into two parts.
True; is a frontal suture (metopic) that will completely ossify and disappear in most people by the age six.
occipital
Which bone contains the foramen magnum?
fossa
Which of the following is not a bone process?
mastoid sinus
Which sinus inflammation in the skull could most commonly lead to deafness?
mastoid
Which sinus, or air cell area, has the potential of having a very serious and painful inflammation that could spread to the brain?
greenstick fracture
Which type of bone fracture occurs as an incomplete break in the bone?
flat
Which type of bone is the primary source of red marrow in an adult?
commuted fracture
Which type of fracture breaks the bone into several fragments?
The mandibular foramen is located on the inferior surface of the mandible and is a common dental anesthetic injection site.
false
A Wormian bone is an extra bone in the skull usually found in the mandible.
false;
tibial tuberosity
point where the patellar ligament attaches
mandibular fossa
the depression in the temporal bone into which the condyle of the mandible fits
Which of the following are a bone process?
trochanter, tubercle, and tuberosity
Yellow bone marrow has lost its hematopoietic ability
true Yellow bone marrow represents a type of fatty degeneration of the blood-producing red bone marrow, that occurs with age.
frontal
The coronal suture separates the _____ from parietal bones.
sacrum
The following are terms related to the pelvic girdle except which one?
epiphyseal disk
The junction between the diaphysis and epiphysis is called the _____.
vitamin D
The main factor which facilitates the movement of calcium through a cell membrane is _____.
yellow bone marrow
The medullary cavity by the diaphysis of an adult bone would contain _____.
ethmoid
The membranes that surround the skull attach to the crista galli, found on the ________________ bone of the skull.
hydroxyapatite
The most prevalent salt in bone matrix is _____. comprised of phosphate, carbonate and hydroxyl (OH-)ions.
vomer
The nasal septum is comprised of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____.
yolk sac
The origin of blood cells is the _____. in the embryo is the source of the hematopoietic cells that will migrate into the embryo.
periosteum
The outer covering of each bone, made from fibrous connective tissue, is called the ________________.
epiphysis
The part of the bone that the articular cartilage covers directly is the _____.
sesamoid
The patella is classified as a/an _____ bone by some anatomists
scapula
The pectoral girdle is made up of the clavicle and the ________________.
zygomatic
The prominent portions of the cheeks are made up of the _________________ bones.
true about intramembranous bones?
They form between flat sheets of connective tissue. Skull bones are formed in this way. Osteoblasts deposit new bone along blood vessels within the layers.
Active exercise can actually cause an increase in the mass and strength of bone.
True
Bone is comprised of several tissues including cartilage and blood.
True
complete fracture
a break that extends through the entire thickness of the bone
compound fracture
bone breaks through the skin
incomplete fracture
bone is not broken all the way through
the following are a main factor in the development of osteoporosis?
diet deficient in calcium, lack of exercise, hormone deficiencies
Although the bones in an elderly person represent dead tissue, they still perform a function of support.
false, Bones contain living cells and a blood vessel network throughout one's lifetime.
The anterior fontanel is a neonatal area of fibrous membrane that is the first to close.
false; The anterior fontanel is the last area to become ossified, around 18 months.
Which of these factors is necessary for normal bone growth and development?
growth hormone, male and female sex hormones, Vitamins A, C, and D
innominate
hip bone
os coxa
hip bone made up of the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis
impacted fracture
one fragment is driven firmly into the other; at the head of the femur or head of the humerus
The following are terms related to the pelvic girdle
os coxa, innominate, ilium
Haversian canal
The center of each osteon contains the _____. filled with blood vessels.
zygomatic
The cheekbone is called the _____ primarily.
scoliosis
A lateral deviation of the alignment of the vertebral column is called a _____.
fontanel
A soft spot in a newborn's skull is called a __________________.
Wormian bone
Also known as intra sutural bones, are extra bone pieces that occur within a suture
acromegaly
An excess of pituitary growth hormone will result in a condition of _____ if first noted in an adult.
hypertrophy
An increase in the mass of bone tissue caused by physical stress is termed bone _____.
carpals
Another name for the wrist bones is _______________.
4 %
During remodeling, about _____% of bone calcium is exchanged each year.
Bone processes are genetically produced for the purpose of serving as attachment points for later muscles.
False
The canaliculi represent microscopic channels that were formed by the blood vessels in the bone.
False, The canaliculi are small canals that were formed by the thin processes arising from the young osteoblasts.
The more collagen a bone has, the more rigid its structure.
False, collagen protein fibers allow a bone to have a degree of flexibility; the calcium salts provide a rigidity
The presence of an epiphyseal disk on an X-ray of a person's shoulder area indicates that growth has probably stopped
False; Epiphyseal disks are areas of cells that have the capability for growth; the presence of a disk on X-ray is an indication that a young person will continue to grow.
Primary ossification centers arise in the epiphyses of long bones.
False; Primary or initial bone deposition or ossification begins in the diaphysis; secondary ossification centers then appear in the ends.
The acetabulum is made up of the ilium and pubis bone.
False; The acetabulum is the hip socket and is made of all three hip bones including the ischium.
The deltoid tuberosity is a ridge on the ulna for attachment of a muscle.
False; The deltoid muscle attaches to a ridge of bone on the lateral surface of the humerus.
The olecranon process of the humerus articulates with the olecranon fossa of the ulna.
False; The olecranon process is the elbow projection of the ulna and will articulate with the humerus.
The surgical neck is an area just below the head of the humerus.
False; The surgical neck is below the greater tubercle and is a common area for fracture; the anatomical neck is below the head
The lower ribs are firmly attached to the xiphoid process.
False; The xiphoid process has no connections to the ribs and can be a source of serious injury if pushed in or fractured.
Excess pituitary growth hormone will cause an 18-year-old to become a giant.
False; hormone can result in giantism if the excess began before the epiphyses close, especially under age 16.
The tibial tuberosity acts as an attachment for the head of the fibula.
False; tibial tuberosity is an attachment for the patellar tendon; the fibula is lateral to the tibia.
osteoclast
Most cases of bone cancer probably involve an increase in the activity of the _____ cells.
spiral fracture
Name the type of fracture where the bone twists resulting in one or more breaks
hemoglobin
The color of the red bone marrow is mainly the result of _____. the iron rich red blood cell pigment that imparts color to blood and bone marrow.
cancellous
Spongy bone is also referred to as _____ bone.
hyoid
The _____ bone supports the lower jaw structures such as the tongue.
sacral promontory
The _____ can be felt during a vaginal examination and be used for obstetric measurements.
osteoclasts
The _____ contain enzymes capable of breaking down the calcium matrix of bone tissue.
sex
The _____ hormones have an effect of increasing bone and muscle mass, especially evident at puberty.
alveolar process
The _____ is the area that houses the teeth.
epiphyseal disk
The _____ represents an area for growth in the length of a long bone.
spinous process
The ______________ of a typical vertebra projects posteriorly, and is thickest and most blunt in appearance in lumbar vertebrae.
squamosal
The _______________ suture joins the temporal and parietal bones of the skull.
medullary cavity
The area of a bone that produces most of the hematopoietic tissue is the _____.
hyaline cartilage
The articular ends of long bones are comprised of _____ tissue. plays a role in allowing a reduced-friction movement in the joints.
fibrocartilage
The callus that forms around a bone fracture is comprised of _____ tissue.
osteoclasts
The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the ________________.
Most of the skeleton in an embryo is cartilage.
True
Rickets is a condition, which causes bones to bend because of the lack of vitamin D and calcium.
True
A low level of blood calcium could be the cause that increases the activity of the osteoclasts.
True; Blood calcium levels are maintained by a homeostatic pooling mechanism; the osteoclasts can dissolve bone matrix therefore releasing calcium into the circulating blood for other functions.
Rib pair number eight are called vertebrochondral ribs because they attach to the cartilage of the seventh rib.
True; Ribs eight to twelve are called false ribs because they have no direct anterior attachments.
The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus
True; The Radius rotates around the ulna and its head fits into the capitulum joint socket of the humerus.
There are more vertebrae in a fetus than there will be in the adult stage.
True; The adult has 26 while the fetus has around 33 vertebrae; the sacrum and coccyx represent a fusion of vertebrae.
The angle of Louis occurs between the first two parts of the sternum and has diagnostic value.
True; The angle of Louis is the sternal angle between the manubrium and body of the sternum.
The flexure in the neck region will develop during a secondary process as the infants raise their heads
True; The cervical curvature develops from the action of bending the neck; persons are born with the curvatures that are termed primary.
The angle of the pubic arch is probably greater in the female than in the male.
True; The pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees in a female and is related to the general tendency to be wider
osteomalacia
Vitamin D deficiency in an adult causes the condition known as _____.
C
Vitamin _____ is required to produce the organic matrix that allows bones to be pliable or hold teeth in their sockets.
transverse foramen
What is found only on the cervical vertebrae?
osteoclast remodeling
What is the final stage of healing following a fracture?
obturator
What is the largest foramen in the body?
bony callus
What is the last stage in the repair of a fracture?
passage of blood vessels
What is the significance of the supraorbital foramen?
birth to five years
When do secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses?
25 years
When do the bones of the sternum become completely ossified?
3rd month
When does ossification begin in a developing fetus?
first-class
When the arm is straightened at the elbow, the bones and muscles are acting as a _____ lever.
tibia
Which bone developed by endochondral ossification? and long bones of the appendages began as cartilage models.
ethmoid
Which bone has the crista galli projection?
temporal
Which bone has the mandibular fossa?
sternum
Which bones would contain significant amounts of red bone marrow in an adult?
formation of a hematoma
Which is the first to occur following a bone fracture?
calcaneus
Which is the largest of the ankle bones?
lacrimal
Which of the following is not a cranial bone? found in the eye orbit and contains the tear ducts.
normal aging
Which of the following is not a main factor in the development of osteoporosis?
sternum
Which of the following produce erythrocytes in an adult? the marrow in bones becomes the source in the adult.
bone matrix
Which of the following require calcium for normal functioning the least?
scapula
Which of these bones has a prominent spine?
frontal bone
Which of these developed by intramembranous ossification?
high fat diet
Which of these factors is not necessary for normal bone growth and development?
osteocyte
Which of these is the most differentiated and oldest?
zygomatic
Which of these skull bones does not contain paranasal sinuses?
They begin with a cartilage model
Which of these statements is not true about intramembranous bones?
maxilla
Which skull bones are not part of the cranium?